• Re: Mathematical incompleteness has always been a misconception --- Rel

    From Richard Damon@21:1/5 to olcott on Sun Mar 2 16:11:22 2025
    On 3/1/25 8:48 PM, olcott wrote:
    On 3/1/2025 3:58 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
    On 3/1/25 4:06 PM, olcott wrote:
    On 3/1/2025 6:49 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
    On 2/28/25 7:06 PM, olcott wrote:
    On 2/28/2025 8:30 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
    On 2/27/25 11:06 PM, olcott wrote:
    On 2/27/2025 7:00 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
    On 2/27/25 9:33 AM, olcott wrote:>>
    Yes logic is broken when it does not require a truth-maker
    for every truth. It is also broken when its idiomatic meaning >>>>>>>>> of the term "provable" diverges from the meaning of the term >>>>>>>>> truth-maker. That every truth must have a truth-maker is outside >>>>>>>>> the scope of what you understand.

    But it does, it just you don't seem to understand what a truth >>>>>>>> makee is?

    Where was a statement without a truth-maker used?


    Logic remains clueless about the philosophical
    notion of truth makers and truth bearers and this is
    why logic gets these things incorrectly.


    No, you remain clueless about the notion of Logic and its rules.


    Only because logic defines "True" in a way that goes against the
    way that True really works is it impossible to define a truth
    predicate in logic.

    No, it doesn't


    The biggest mistake that logic makes is failing to understand
    that an expression can only be true when it has a truth bearer.

    No it doesn't, it just allows the truth bearer to be an infinite
    number of steps away from the statement.


    When we don't make a screwy term-of-the-art meaning
    of provable(math) that diverges from provable(common)
    {whatever the Hell makes X true} then incompleteness(math)
    ceases to exist.


    What is divergent?

    Proveable(common) is *NOT* "whatever make X true", but what SHOWS X to
    be true, and to show something requires the showing to be a finite
    arguement, as we can't "see" an infinite one.

    So, your problem is just you don't understand the meaning of the words
    you are using.

    I had to over simplify it so that you could get the gist of the idea.

    All of these decades since Carnap and Quine not one person that
    I know of has ever understood that the essence of analytic truth
    is simply relations between finite strings.

    Analytic knowledge is always a finite sequence of relations
    between finite strings. Analytic truth can include infinite
    sequences of relations between finite strings.

    Analytical KNOWLEDGE.

    There is a difference between KNOWEDGE and TRUTH.



    The closest existing term is the term "proof". Even the finite
    sequence of finite strings is a notion much broader than any
    conventional notion of "proof" yet there are no existing terms
    that encompass this meaning.


    No, the problem is you don't really understand what you are saying, as
    your logic is based on a fundamentally unsound basis, that you can't
    look at or you would realize your error.

    You are just to stupid and stubborn to see you stupidity and stubbornness.

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