• Re: Mathematical incompleteness has always been a misconception

    From Richard Damon@21:1/5 to olcott on Thu Jan 30 20:06:34 2025
    On 1/30/25 6:10 PM, olcott wrote:
    Within the entire body of analytical truth any expression of language
    that has no sequence of formalized semantic deductive inference steps
    from the formalized semantic foundational truths of this system are
    simply untrue in this system. (Isomorphic to provable from axioms).

    In other words when any expression of language of any system (formal or informal) has no semantic connection to its semantic meaning in this
    system then this expression is simply nonsense in this system. "This
    sentence is untrue" is Boolean nonsense.

    Copyright PL Olcott 2016 through 2025.


    Except that isn't what incompleteness says.

    Incompleteness is about the existance of statements which are TRUE,
    because there is a sequence of formal semantic deduction that reaches
    the statement, abet an infinite one, but there is no finite sequnce of
    formal semantic deduction to form a proof.

    You are just so ignorant about the distinction between knowledge and
    truth, that you can't make that distinction.

    And this stupidity blinds you to the logic that you are trying to
    manipulate, so you just prove that stupidity.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Mikko@21:1/5 to olcott on Fri Jan 31 11:24:58 2025
    On 2025-01-30 23:10:18 +0000, olcott said:

    Within the entire body of analytical truth any expression of language
    that has no sequence of formalized semantic deductive inference steps
    from the formalized semantic foundational truths of this system are
    simply untrue in this system. (Isomorphic to provable from axioms).

    If there is a misconception then you have misconceived something. It is well known that it is possible to construct a formal theory where some formulas
    are neither provble nor disprovable. Often that is done intentionally in
    order to make the theory applicable to situations where some such sentence
    is true as well as to situations where the same sentence is false.

    --
    Mikko

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Richard Damon@21:1/5 to olcott on Fri Jan 31 09:49:16 2025
    On 1/30/25 8:24 PM, olcott wrote:
    On 1/30/2025 7:06 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
    On 1/30/25 6:10 PM, olcott wrote:
    Within the entire body of analytical truth any expression of language
    that has no sequence of formalized semantic deductive inference steps
    from the formalized semantic foundational truths of this system are
    simply untrue in this system. (Isomorphic to provable from axioms).

    In other words when any expression of language of any system (formal
    or informal) has no semantic connection to its semantic meaning in
    this system then this expression is simply nonsense in this system.
    "This sentence is untrue" is Boolean nonsense.

    Copyright PL Olcott 2016 through 2025.


    Except that isn't what incompleteness says.

    Incompleteness is about the existance of statements which are TRUE,
    because there is a sequence of formal semantic deduction that reaches
    the statement, abet an infinite one, but there is no finite sequnce of
    formal semantic deduction to form a proof.


    That might be correct. If it is correct then all then
    all that it is really saying is that math is incomplete
    because some key pieces were intentionally left out.

    What was left out?

    It seems what is misisng is *YOUR* understanding of what you talk about.

    Your claims are just based on lies based on your misunderstanding of
    what others have written, largely because you fail to study the material
    to actually know the meaning of the words being used, and their
    implications.


    What-so-ever makes an expression true <is> its philosophical
    truth maker and thus is proof in the broadest sense of the
    term {proof}, not the narrow mathematical idiomatic sense.

    Yes, and if it is an infinite sequence, it isn't a proof.

    You just have a blind spot to understanding infinity.


    You are just so ignorant about the distinction between knowledge and
    truth, that you can't make that distinction.

    And this stupidity blinds you to the logic that you are trying to
    manipulate, so you just prove that stupidity.



    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Richard Damon@21:1/5 to olcott on Fri Jan 31 09:53:33 2025
    On 1/31/25 8:57 AM, olcott wrote:
    On 1/31/2025 3:24 AM, Mikko wrote:
    On 2025-01-30 23:10:18 +0000, olcott said:

    Within the entire body of analytical truth any expression of language
    that has no sequence of formalized semantic deductive inference steps
    from the formalized semantic foundational truths of this system are
    simply untrue in this system. (Isomorphic to provable from axioms).

    If there is a misconception then you have misconceived something. It
    is well
    known that it is possible to construct a formal theory where some
    formulas
    are neither provble nor disprovable.

    This is well known. What is not so widely known is that this
    is only possible because process defining what is referred to
    as a math proof intentionally leaves out key required elements
    that would otherwise make it complete.

    What is a "proof" is a well defined definition, and based on what is
    required to make something knowable in the system.


    Any expression of language that lacks a sequence of semantic
    deductive inference steps from the basic facts stipulated truths
    of this system to this expression is simply untrue in this system.

    And if that sequence is infinite, the fact is true, but might not be
    provable, (or knowable through that system).


    Using another more expressive system to show that the expression
    is true in this other system does not make the expression true in
    the original system.

    Nor does it say that the infinte sequence shown in the original wasn't
    correct, and make the statement untrue.



    Often that is done intentionally in
    order to make the theory applicable to situations where some such
    sentence
    is true as well as to situations where the same sentence is false.


    Thus incompleteness is intentional incoherence that can always be
    prevented.


    Nope, your ideas are inherently, and perhaps intentionally, incoherent
    showing your stupidity and ignorance. Your failure to understand the
    nature of truth will be your demise.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Richard Damon@21:1/5 to olcott on Fri Jan 31 11:08:58 2025
    On 1/31/25 10:20 AM, olcott wrote:
    On 1/31/2025 8:49 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
    On 1/30/25 8:24 PM, olcott wrote:
    On 1/30/2025 7:06 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
    On 1/30/25 6:10 PM, olcott wrote:
    Within the entire body of analytical truth any expression of
    language that has no sequence of formalized semantic deductive
    inference steps from the formalized semantic foundational truths of
    this system are simply untrue in this system. (Isomorphic to
    provable from axioms).

    In other words when any expression of language of any system
    (formal or informal) has no semantic connection to its semantic
    meaning in this system then this expression is simply nonsense in
    this system. "This sentence is untrue" is Boolean nonsense.

    Copyright PL Olcott 2016 through 2025.


    Except that isn't what incompleteness says.

    Incompleteness is about the existance of statements which are TRUE,
    because there is a sequence of formal semantic deduction that
    reaches the statement, abet an infinite one, but there is no finite
    sequnce of formal semantic deduction to form a proof.


    That might be correct. If it is correct then all then
    all that it is really saying is that math is incomplete
    because some key pieces were intentionally left out.

    What was left out?


    If there exists no contiguous sequence of semantic deductive inference
    steps from the basic facts of a system establishing that the semantic
    meaning of this expression has a value of Boolean true in this system
    then this expression is simply not true in this system even if it may be
    true in other more expressive systems.

    The system is incomplete in the artificially contrivance way of
    deliberately defined system to be insufficiently expressive.


    And what about the fact that ther *IS* a contiguos sequence, infinite in length, that makes the statement true that you don't understand.

    Part of your problem is you seem to never actually read the thing you
    are arguing about, but make a "simplifed" version of it, that might not
    be accurate, and argue against that strawman.

    You are just proving that you don't understand how logic works, and that
    you are fundamentally ignorant of how logic actually works.


    That there can be a more expressive system than the one in question,
    doesn't negate that the system itself exists. It seems you just don't undetstand that fundamental principle of logic systems, and don't
    understand the nature of "Formal Logic", only Abstract Philosophy, which
    can't actually prove anything as it doesn't have a defined base.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Richard Damon@21:1/5 to olcott on Fri Jan 31 20:52:49 2025
    On 1/31/25 12:42 PM, olcott wrote:
    On 1/31/2025 10:08 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
    On 1/31/25 10:20 AM, olcott wrote:
    On 1/31/2025 8:49 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
    On 1/30/25 8:24 PM, olcott wrote:
    On 1/30/2025 7:06 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
    On 1/30/25 6:10 PM, olcott wrote:
    Within the entire body of analytical truth any expression of
    language that has no sequence of formalized semantic deductive
    inference steps from the formalized semantic foundational truths >>>>>>> of this system are simply untrue in this system. (Isomorphic to
    provable from axioms).

    In other words when any expression of language of any system
    (formal or informal) has no semantic connection to its semantic
    meaning in this system then this expression is simply nonsense in >>>>>>> this system. "This sentence is untrue" is Boolean nonsense.

    Copyright PL Olcott 2016 through 2025.


    Except that isn't what incompleteness says.

    Incompleteness is about the existance of statements which are
    TRUE, because there is a sequence of formal semantic deduction
    that reaches the statement, abet an infinite one, but there is no
    finite sequnce of formal semantic deduction to form a proof.


    That might be correct. If it is correct then all then
    all that it is really saying is that math is incomplete
    because some key pieces were intentionally left out.

    What was left out?


    If there exists no contiguous sequence of semantic deductive inference
    steps from the basic facts of a system establishing that the semantic
    meaning of this expression has a value of Boolean true in this system
    then this expression is simply not true in this system even if it may be >>> true in other more expressive systems.

    The system is incomplete in the artificially contrivance way of
    deliberately defined system to be insufficiently expressive.


    And what about the fact that ther *IS* a contiguos sequence, infinite
    in length, that makes the statement true that you don't understand.


    "Incomplete" means that there is no contiguous sequence of inference
    steps within the expressiveness of this specific formal system.


    No, "Incomplete" means that there is some true statement that can not be proven.

    That means that there exist some statement whose only semantic chain of inference is infinite, and not finite.

    Where do you get your definition from? I suspect it is from the lies of
    your mind.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Mikko@21:1/5 to olcott on Sat Feb 1 11:19:38 2025
    On 2025-01-31 13:57:02 +0000, olcott said:

    On 1/31/2025 3:24 AM, Mikko wrote:
    On 2025-01-30 23:10:18 +0000, olcott said:

    Within the entire body of analytical truth any expression of language
    that has no sequence of formalized semantic deductive inference steps
    from the formalized semantic foundational truths of this system are
    simply untrue in this system. (Isomorphic to provable from axioms).

    If there is a misconception then you have misconceived something. It is well >> known that it is possible to construct a formal theory where some formulas >> are neither provble nor disprovable.

    This is well known.

    And well undeerstood. The claim on the subject line is false.

    What is not so widely known is that this is only possible because process defining what is referred to as a math proof intentionally leaves out key required elements that would otherwise make it complete.

    Wrong. The result is the same if the omission is unintentional. For example, Peano did not intentionally leave anything out in order to make an incomplete theory. Only later Gödel found out that Peano's theory is incomplete.

    --
    Mikko

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Richard Damon@21:1/5 to olcott on Sat Feb 1 08:56:17 2025
    On 1/31/25 10:43 PM, olcott wrote:
    On 1/31/2025 7:52 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
    On 1/31/25 12:42 PM, olcott wrote:
    On 1/31/2025 10:08 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
    On 1/31/25 10:20 AM, olcott wrote:
    On 1/31/2025 8:49 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
    On 1/30/25 8:24 PM, olcott wrote:
    On 1/30/2025 7:06 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
    On 1/30/25 6:10 PM, olcott wrote:
    Within the entire body of analytical truth any expression of >>>>>>>>> language that has no sequence of formalized semantic deductive >>>>>>>>> inference steps from the formalized semantic foundational
    truths of this system are simply untrue in this system.
    (Isomorphic to provable from axioms).

    In other words when any expression of language of any system >>>>>>>>> (formal or informal) has no semantic connection to its semantic >>>>>>>>> meaning in this system then this expression is simply nonsense >>>>>>>>> in this system. "This sentence is untrue" is Boolean nonsense. >>>>>>>>>
    Copyright PL Olcott 2016 through 2025.


    Except that isn't what incompleteness says.

    Incompleteness is about the existance of statements which are
    TRUE, because there is a sequence of formal semantic deduction >>>>>>>> that reaches the statement, abet an infinite one, but there is >>>>>>>> no finite sequnce of formal semantic deduction to form a proof. >>>>>>>>

    That might be correct. If it is correct then all then
    all that it is really saying is that math is incomplete
    because some key pieces were intentionally left out.

    What was left out?


    If there exists no contiguous sequence of semantic deductive inference >>>>> steps from the basic facts of a system establishing that the
    semantic meaning of this expression has a value of Boolean true in
    this system then this expression is simply not true in this system
    even if it may be
    true in other more expressive systems.

    The system is incomplete in the artificially contrivance way of
    deliberately defined system to be insufficiently expressive.


    And what about the fact that ther *IS* a contiguos sequence,
    infinite in length, that makes the statement true that you don't
    understand.


    "Incomplete" means that there is no contiguous sequence of inference
    steps within the expressiveness of this specific formal system.


    No, "Incomplete" means that there is some true statement that can not
    be proven.


    Within empirical truth this is possible.
    Within analytical truth this is impossible.

    No, you only think it is impossible, becuase you don't know what you are talking about.


    Unless there is a semantic connection with
    a truthmaker to what makes the expression
    true IS IS NOT TRUE.

    Right, and that can be an INFINITE series of connection, which thus
    don't form a proof.


    This is "proof" in the big sense of the term,
    not the term-of-the-art thus idiomatic mathematical
    meaning.



    And thus, you admit that you LIE. Incompleteness is a term-of-art based
    on terms-of-art.

    So, to use another definition is just an admission of LYING.

    That you have done this lying for decades, is evidence that you are
    nothing but the damned liar that you like to talk about and accuse other of.

    It is a natural characteristic of "evil" to just blindly project its own
    evil on others.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Richard Damon@21:1/5 to olcott on Sat Feb 1 13:23:27 2025
    On 2/1/25 1:10 PM, olcott wrote:
    On 2/1/2025 7:56 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
    On 1/31/25 10:43 PM, olcott wrote:
    On 1/31/2025 7:52 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
    On 1/31/25 12:42 PM, olcott wrote:
    On 1/31/2025 10:08 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
    On 1/31/25 10:20 AM, olcott wrote:
    On 1/31/2025 8:49 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
    On 1/30/25 8:24 PM, olcott wrote:
    On 1/30/2025 7:06 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
    On 1/30/25 6:10 PM, olcott wrote:
    Within the entire body of analytical truth any expression of >>>>>>>>>>> language that has no sequence of formalized semantic
    deductive inference steps from the formalized semantic
    foundational truths of this system are simply untrue in this >>>>>>>>>>> system. (Isomorphic to provable from axioms).

    In other words when any expression of language of any system >>>>>>>>>>> (formal or informal) has no semantic connection to its
    semantic meaning in this system then this expression is
    simply nonsense in this system. "This sentence is untrue" is >>>>>>>>>>> Boolean nonsense.

    Copyright PL Olcott 2016 through 2025.


    Except that isn't what incompleteness says.

    Incompleteness is about the existance of statements which are >>>>>>>>>> TRUE, because there is a sequence of formal semantic deduction >>>>>>>>>> that reaches the statement, abet an infinite one, but there is >>>>>>>>>> no finite sequnce of formal semantic deduction to form a proof. >>>>>>>>>>

    That might be correct. If it is correct then all then
    all that it is really saying is that math is incomplete
    because some key pieces were intentionally left out.

    What was left out?


    If there exists no contiguous sequence of semantic deductive
    inference
    steps from the basic facts of a system establishing that the
    semantic meaning of this expression has a value of Boolean true
    in this system then this expression is simply not true in this
    system even if it may be
    true in other more expressive systems.

    The system is incomplete in the artificially contrivance way of
    deliberately defined system to be insufficiently expressive.


    And what about the fact that ther *IS* a contiguos sequence,
    infinite in length, that makes the statement true that you don't
    understand.


    "Incomplete" means that there is no contiguous sequence of inference >>>>> steps within the expressiveness of this specific formal system.


    No, "Incomplete" means that there is some true statement that can
    not be proven.


    Within empirical truth this is possible.
    Within analytical truth this is impossible.

    No, you only think it is impossible, becuase you don't know what you
    are talking about.


    Unless there is a semantic connection with
    a truthmaker to what makes the expression
    true IS IS NOT TRUE.

    Right, and that can be an INFINITE series of connection, which thus
    don't form a proof.


    It does make a {proof} within the foundational base meaning
    of the term {proof} even though it may not meet the idiomatic
    term-of-the-art meaning from math. The generic notion of {Truth}
    itself is only defined in terms of base meanings. When math
    diverges from this it is no longer talking about actual truth.



    The "foundational base meaning" of a proof in Formal Logic is a FINITE
    series.

    I know of no standard theory of logic that admits an infinite series of
    steps as a "proof", as we can not do an infinite series of steps, and a
    proof is normally about knowledge, and thus needs to be about something
    that we can actually do.

    We can do a finite series of steps to show that an infinite series of
    steps exist in another system by the properties of meta-logic, but that
    is not a "proof" in that other system, only in the meta-system, again
    something that seems to be beyond your understanding.

    And, you are wrong that "truth" only has a single base meaning, as Truth
    is established by several different meanings each given a different
    "class" of Truth.

    I'm sorry, but you are just showing that you don't really understand the
    terms you are using, and tha that you don't even have enough of a basis
    to understand that you don't understand the terms.

    You HAVE been shown this, and your repeatedly repeating the same proven
    false claims just shows that you are totally ignorant of what you talk
    about, and have no concern about the actual meaning of Truth. This shows
    that you native tounge is that of your "father", the tounge of lies,
    which you try your best to sprea.

    Sorry that you are sealing your fate, which you are likely going to see
    sooner than you want.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Richard Damon@21:1/5 to olcott on Sat Feb 1 13:29:03 2025
    On 2/1/25 9:09 AM, olcott wrote:
    On 2/1/2025 3:19 AM, Mikko wrote:
    On 2025-01-31 13:57:02 +0000, olcott said:

    On 1/31/2025 3:24 AM, Mikko wrote:
    On 2025-01-30 23:10:18 +0000, olcott said:

    Within the entire body of analytical truth any expression of
    language that has no sequence of formalized semantic deductive
    inference steps from the formalized semantic foundational truths of
    this system are simply untrue in this system. (Isomorphic to
    provable from axioms).

    If there is a misconception then you have misconceived something. It
    is well
    known that it is possible to construct a formal theory where some
    formulas
    are neither provble nor disprovable.

    This is well known.

    And well undeerstood. The claim on the subject line is false.


    a fact or piece of information that shows that something
    exists or is true: https://dictionary.cambridge.org/us/dictionary/english/proof

    Right, and to show to a person, it must be finite in length.

    If the method of showing something is true is to evaluate a relationship
    at EVERY intergral value, and see it is satisfied for every value, but
    no methed exist to reduce that, in the system, to an induction or
    similar methods to make the process finite, does not "Show" that
    something is true, as we can't actually do it.


    When you disallow assigning different idiomatic meanings to terms-of
    the-art such that the term "proof" retains every nuance of its base
    meaning and not allowed to diverge from this meaning at all then every expression of language that is only made true (by a connection through
    its philosophical truth maker) to its verbalized semantic meaning must necessarily remain untrue when it lacks such a connection.

    Except your attempt is to remove one of the core requirements, that is
    SHOWS that the statement is true, becuase that showing takes infinite
    work, which no person is able to do.

    All you are doing is showing that you fundamentally don't understand the existance or properties of the infinite.

    I guess this goes with your idea that you are God, as only God is able
    to do the infinite, but of course, you can't actually do that, because
    you are not God.

    Sorry, you are just proving your stupidity,


    What is not so widely known is that this is only possible because
    process
    defining what is referred to as a math proof intentionally leaves out
    key
    required elements that would otherwise make it complete.

    Wrong. The result is the same if the omission is unintentional. For
    example,
    Peano did not intentionally leave anything out in order to make an
    incomplete
    theory. Only later Gödel found out that Peano's theory is incomplete.




    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Mikko@21:1/5 to olcott on Sun Feb 2 11:27:56 2025
    On 2025-02-01 14:09:54 +0000, olcott said:

    On 2/1/2025 3:19 AM, Mikko wrote:
    On 2025-01-31 13:57:02 +0000, olcott said:

    On 1/31/2025 3:24 AM, Mikko wrote:
    On 2025-01-30 23:10:18 +0000, olcott said:

    Within the entire body of analytical truth any expression of language >>>>> that has no sequence of formalized semantic deductive inference steps >>>>> from the formalized semantic foundational truths of this system are
    simply untrue in this system. (Isomorphic to provable from axioms).

    If there is a misconception then you have misconceived something. It is well
    known that it is possible to construct a formal theory where some formulas >>>> are neither provble nor disprovable.

    This is well known.

    And well undeerstood. The claim on the subject line is false.

    a fact or piece of information that shows that something
    exists or is true: https://dictionary.cambridge.org/us/dictionary/english/proof

    We require that terms of art are used with their term-of-art meaning and
    that the same word is not used for any other meaning. Dictionaries that
    are not deictionaries of the particular art are not relevant.

    Consequently, there is no reason to revise my initial comment.

    --
    Mikko

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Mikko@21:1/5 to olcott on Mon Feb 3 17:07:37 2025
    On 2025-02-03 03:30:46 +0000, olcott said:

    On 2/2/2025 3:27 AM, Mikko wrote:
    On 2025-02-01 14:09:54 +0000, olcott said:

    On 2/1/2025 3:19 AM, Mikko wrote:
    On 2025-01-31 13:57:02 +0000, olcott said:

    On 1/31/2025 3:24 AM, Mikko wrote:
    On 2025-01-30 23:10:18 +0000, olcott said:

    Within the entire body of analytical truth any expression of language >>>>>>> that has no sequence of formalized semantic deductive inference steps >>>>>>> from the formalized semantic foundational truths of this system are >>>>>>> simply untrue in this system. (Isomorphic to provable from axioms). >>>>>>
    If there is a misconception then you have misconceived something. It is well
    known that it is possible to construct a formal theory where some formulas
    are neither provble nor disprovable.

    This is well known.

    And well undeerstood. The claim on the subject line is false.

    a fact or piece of information that shows that something
    exists or is true:
    https://dictionary.cambridge.org/us/dictionary/english/proof

    We require that terms of art are used with their term-of-art meaning and

    The fundamental base meaning of Truth[0] itself remains the same
    no matter what idiomatic meanings say.

    Irrelevant as the subject line does not mention truth.
    Therefore, no need to revise my initial comment.

    --
    Mikko

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Richard Damon@21:1/5 to olcott on Mon Feb 3 19:39:36 2025
    On 2/3/25 12:00 PM, olcott wrote:
    On 2/1/2025 12:23 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
    On 2/1/25 1:10 PM, olcott wrote:
    On 2/1/2025 7:56 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
    On 1/31/25 10:43 PM, olcott wrote:
    On 1/31/2025 7:52 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
    On 1/31/25 12:42 PM, olcott wrote:
    On 1/31/2025 10:08 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
    On 1/31/25 10:20 AM, olcott wrote:
    On 1/31/2025 8:49 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
    On 1/30/25 8:24 PM, olcott wrote:
    On 1/30/2025 7:06 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
    On 1/30/25 6:10 PM, olcott wrote:
    Within the entire body of analytical truth any expression >>>>>>>>>>>>> of language that has no sequence of formalized semantic >>>>>>>>>>>>> deductive inference steps from the formalized semantic >>>>>>>>>>>>> foundational truths of this system are simply untrue in >>>>>>>>>>>>> this system. (Isomorphic to provable from axioms).

    In other words when any expression of language of any >>>>>>>>>>>>> system (formal or informal) has no semantic connection to >>>>>>>>>>>>> its semantic meaning in this system then this expression is >>>>>>>>>>>>> simply nonsense in this system. "This sentence is untrue" >>>>>>>>>>>>> is Boolean nonsense.

    Copyright PL Olcott 2016 through 2025.


    Except that isn't what incompleteness says.

    Incompleteness is about the existance of statements which >>>>>>>>>>>> are TRUE, because there is a sequence of formal semantic >>>>>>>>>>>> deduction that reaches the statement, abet an infinite one, >>>>>>>>>>>> but there is no finite sequnce of formal semantic deduction >>>>>>>>>>>> to form a proof.


    That might be correct. If it is correct then all then
    all that it is really saying is that math is incomplete
    because some key pieces were intentionally left out.

    What was left out?


    If there exists no contiguous sequence of semantic deductive >>>>>>>>> inference
    steps from the basic facts of a system establishing that the >>>>>>>>> semantic meaning of this expression has a value of Boolean true >>>>>>>>> in this system then this expression is simply not true in this >>>>>>>>> system even if it may be
    true in other more expressive systems.

    The system is incomplete in the artificially contrivance way of >>>>>>>>> deliberately defined system to be insufficiently expressive. >>>>>>>>>

    And what about the fact that ther *IS* a contiguos sequence,
    infinite in length, that makes the statement true that you don't >>>>>>>> understand.


    "Incomplete" means that there is no contiguous sequence of inference >>>>>>> steps within the expressiveness of this specific formal system.


    No, "Incomplete" means that there is some true statement that can
    not be proven.


    Within empirical truth this is possible.
    Within analytical truth this is impossible.

    No, you only think it is impossible, becuase you don't know what you
    are talking about.


    Unless there is a semantic connection with
    a truthmaker to what makes the expression
    true IS IS NOT TRUE.

    Right, and that can be an INFINITE series of connection, which thus
    don't form a proof.


    It does make a {proof} within the foundational base meaning
    of the term {proof} even though it may not meet the idiomatic
    term-of-the-art meaning from math. The generic notion of {Truth}
    itself is only defined in terms of base meanings. When math
    diverges from this it is no longer talking about actual truth.



    The "foundational base meaning" of a proof in Formal Logic is a FINITE
    series.


    True[0] cannot possibly exist for any expression of language that
    is only made true by a semantic connection to its truthmaker.

    Which can be a connection of infinite length.


    This makes the notion of provable[math] essentially a misnomer
    because it attempts to override and supersede the most basic
    foundation of the notion of truth itself.

    But provable is a statment about the existance of a FINITE sequence of connection

    Sorry, you are just proving you don't know what you are talking about
    and talking in circles to avoid the truth.


    I know of no standard theory of logic that admits an infinite series
    of steps as a "proof", as we can not do an infinite series of steps,
    and a proof is normally about knowledge, and thus needs to be about
    something that we can actually do.

    We can do a finite series of steps to show that an infinite series of
    steps exist in another system by the properties of meta-logic, but
    that is not a "proof" in that other system, only in the meta-system,
    again something that seems to be beyond your understanding.

    And, you are wrong that "truth" only has a single base meaning, as
    Truth is established by several different meanings each given a
    different "class" of Truth.

    I'm sorry, but you are just showing that you don't really understand
    the terms you are using, and tha that you don't even have enough of a
    basis to understand that you don't understand the terms.

    You HAVE been shown this, and your repeatedly repeating the same
    proven false claims just shows that you are totally ignorant of what
    you talk about, and have no concern about the actual meaning of Truth.
    This shows that you native tounge is that of your "father", the tounge
    of lies, which you try your best to sprea.

    Sorry that you are sealing your fate, which you are likely going to
    see sooner than you want.



    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Mikko@21:1/5 to olcott on Tue Feb 4 11:22:40 2025
    On 2025-02-03 16:54:08 +0000, olcott said:

    On 2/3/2025 9:07 AM, Mikko wrote:
    On 2025-02-03 03:30:46 +0000, olcott said:

    On 2/2/2025 3:27 AM, Mikko wrote:
    On 2025-02-01 14:09:54 +0000, olcott said:

    On 2/1/2025 3:19 AM, Mikko wrote:
    On 2025-01-31 13:57:02 +0000, olcott said:

    On 1/31/2025 3:24 AM, Mikko wrote:
    On 2025-01-30 23:10:18 +0000, olcott said:

    Within the entire body of analytical truth any expression of language >>>>>>>>> that has no sequence of formalized semantic deductive inference steps >>>>>>>>> from the formalized semantic foundational truths of this system are >>>>>>>>> simply untrue in this system. (Isomorphic to provable from axioms). >>>>>>>>
    If there is a misconception then you have misconceived something. It is well
    known that it is possible to construct a formal theory where some formulas
    are neither provble nor disprovable.

    This is well known.

    And well undeerstood. The claim on the subject line is false.

    a fact or piece of information that shows that something
    exists or is true:
    https://dictionary.cambridge.org/us/dictionary/english/proof

    We require that terms of art are used with their term-of-art meaning and >>>
    The fundamental base meaning of Truth[0] itself remains the same
    no matter what idiomatic meanings say.

    Irrelevant as the subject line does not mention truth.
    Therefore, no need to revise my initial comment.

    The notion of truth is entailed by the subject line:
    misconception means ~True.

    The title line means that something is misunderstood but that something
    is not the meaning of "true". But the subject line is false. Mathematical incompleteness is sometimes misunderstood but not always. Its definition
    is clear but some people make invalid inferences.

    --
    Mikko

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Mikko@21:1/5 to olcott on Wed Feb 5 09:44:47 2025
    On 2025-02-04 16:11:08 +0000, olcott said:

    On 2/4/2025 3:22 AM, Mikko wrote:
    On 2025-02-03 16:54:08 +0000, olcott said:

    On 2/3/2025 9:07 AM, Mikko wrote:
    On 2025-02-03 03:30:46 +0000, olcott said:

    On 2/2/2025 3:27 AM, Mikko wrote:
    On 2025-02-01 14:09:54 +0000, olcott said:

    On 2/1/2025 3:19 AM, Mikko wrote:
    On 2025-01-31 13:57:02 +0000, olcott said:

    On 1/31/2025 3:24 AM, Mikko wrote:
    On 2025-01-30 23:10:18 +0000, olcott said:

    Within the entire body of analytical truth any expression of language
    that has no sequence of formalized semantic deductive inference steps
    from the formalized semantic foundational truths of this system are >>>>>>>>>>> simply untrue in this system. (Isomorphic to provable from axioms). >>>>>>>>>>
    If there is a misconception then you have misconceived something. It is well
    known that it is possible to construct a formal theory where some formulas
    are neither provble nor disprovable.

    This is well known.

    And well undeerstood. The claim on the subject line is false.

    a fact or piece of information that shows that something
    exists or is true:
    https://dictionary.cambridge.org/us/dictionary/english/proof

    We require that terms of art are used with their term-of-art meaning and >>>>>
    The fundamental base meaning of Truth[0] itself remains the same
    no matter what idiomatic meanings say.

    Irrelevant as the subject line does not mention truth.
    Therefore, no need to revise my initial comment.

    The notion of truth is entailed by the subject line:
    misconception means ~True.

    The title line means that something is misunderstood but that something
    is not the meaning of "true".

    It is untrue because it is misunderstood.

    Mathematical incompleteness is not a claim so it cannot be untrue.

    --
    Mikko

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Richard Damon@21:1/5 to olcott on Wed Feb 5 07:08:01 2025
    On 2/4/25 11:30 PM, olcott wrote:
    On 2/3/2025 6:39 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
    On 2/3/25 12:00 PM, olcott wrote:
    On 2/1/2025 12:23 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
    On 2/1/25 1:10 PM, olcott wrote:
    On 2/1/2025 7:56 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
    On 1/31/25 10:43 PM, olcott wrote:
    On 1/31/2025 7:52 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
    On 1/31/25 12:42 PM, olcott wrote:
    On 1/31/2025 10:08 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
    On 1/31/25 10:20 AM, olcott wrote:
    On 1/31/2025 8:49 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
    On 1/30/25 8:24 PM, olcott wrote:
    On 1/30/2025 7:06 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
    On 1/30/25 6:10 PM, olcott wrote:
    Within the entire body of analytical truth any expression >>>>>>>>>>>>>>> of language that has no sequence of formalized semantic >>>>>>>>>>>>>>> deductive inference steps from the formalized semantic >>>>>>>>>>>>>>> foundational truths of this system are simply untrue in >>>>>>>>>>>>>>> this system. (Isomorphic to provable from axioms). >>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
    In other words when any expression of language of any >>>>>>>>>>>>>>> system (formal or informal) has no semantic connection to >>>>>>>>>>>>>>> its semantic meaning in this system then this expression >>>>>>>>>>>>>>> is simply nonsense in this system. "This sentence is >>>>>>>>>>>>>>> untrue" is Boolean nonsense.

    Copyright PL Olcott 2016 through 2025.


    Except that isn't what incompleteness says.

    Incompleteness is about the existance of statements which >>>>>>>>>>>>>> are TRUE, because there is a sequence of formal semantic >>>>>>>>>>>>>> deduction that reaches the statement, abet an infinite >>>>>>>>>>>>>> one, but there is no finite sequnce of formal semantic >>>>>>>>>>>>>> deduction to form a proof.


    That might be correct. If it is correct then all then >>>>>>>>>>>>> all that it is really saying is that math is incomplete >>>>>>>>>>>>> because some key pieces were intentionally left out.

    What was left out?


    If there exists no contiguous sequence of semantic deductive >>>>>>>>>>> inference
    steps from the basic facts of a system establishing that the >>>>>>>>>>> semantic meaning of this expression has a value of Boolean >>>>>>>>>>> true in this system then this expression is simply not true >>>>>>>>>>> in this system even if it may be
    true in other more expressive systems.

    The system is incomplete in the artificially contrivance way of >>>>>>>>>>> deliberately defined system to be insufficiently expressive. >>>>>>>>>>>

    And what about the fact that ther *IS* a contiguos sequence, >>>>>>>>>> infinite in length, that makes the statement true that you >>>>>>>>>> don't understand.


    "Incomplete" means that there is no contiguous sequence of
    inference
    steps within the expressiveness of this specific formal system. >>>>>>>>>

    No, "Incomplete" means that there is some true statement that
    can not be proven.


    Within empirical truth this is possible.
    Within analytical truth this is impossible.

    No, you only think it is impossible, becuase you don't know what
    you are talking about.


    Unless there is a semantic connection with
    a truthmaker to what makes the expression
    true IS IS NOT TRUE.

    Right, and that can be an INFINITE series of connection, which
    thus don't form a proof.


    It does make a {proof} within the foundational base meaning
    of the term {proof} even though it may not meet the idiomatic
    term-of-the-art meaning from math. The generic notion of {Truth}
    itself is only defined in terms of base meanings. When math
    diverges from this it is no longer talking about actual truth.



    The "foundational base meaning" of a proof in Formal Logic is a
    FINITE series.


    True[0] cannot possibly exist for any expression of language that
    is only made true by a semantic connection to its truthmaker.

    Which can be a connection of infinite length.


    This makes the notion of provable[math] essentially a misnomer
    because it attempts to override and supersede the most basic
    foundation of the notion of truth itself.

    But provable is a statment about the existance of a FINITE sequence of
    connection


    That IS NOT what Proof[0] means.
    Proof[0] means that a connection to a truth-maker exists.


    Show me an actual formal system defined that allows "Proof" to be an
    infinite connection to the truth-maker. All you are doing ios proving
    that you are just making up everything you say,

    I think part of the problem is you just don't understand what a Formal
    System is, and since Incompleteness is a property of Formal System (not
    just general philosophy) that is an important part.

    Of course, your big part for not understanding Formal Systens is you
    don't believe you need to follow the rules, and that is fundamental to
    Formal Logic, so its concepts are just foreign to you.

    Sorry, you are just proving your total ignorance of what you talk about,
    and so ignorant that you can't see your ignorance.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Richard Damon@21:1/5 to olcott on Wed Feb 5 21:35:16 2025
    On 2/5/25 11:03 AM, olcott wrote:
    On 2/5/2025 1:44 AM, Mikko wrote:
    On 2025-02-04 16:11:08 +0000, olcott said:

    On 2/4/2025 3:22 AM, Mikko wrote:
    On 2025-02-03 16:54:08 +0000, olcott said:

    On 2/3/2025 9:07 AM, Mikko wrote:
    On 2025-02-03 03:30:46 +0000, olcott said:

    On 2/2/2025 3:27 AM, Mikko wrote:
    On 2025-02-01 14:09:54 +0000, olcott said:

    On 2/1/2025 3:19 AM, Mikko wrote:
    On 2025-01-31 13:57:02 +0000, olcott said:

    On 1/31/2025 3:24 AM, Mikko wrote:
    On 2025-01-30 23:10:18 +0000, olcott said:

    Within the entire body of analytical truth any expression >>>>>>>>>>>>> of language that has no sequence of formalized semantic >>>>>>>>>>>>> deductive inference steps from the formalized semantic >>>>>>>>>>>>> foundational truths of this system are simply untrue in >>>>>>>>>>>>> this system. (Isomorphic to provable from axioms).

    If there is a misconception then you have misconceived >>>>>>>>>>>> something. It is well
    known that it is possible to construct a formal theory where >>>>>>>>>>>> some formulas
    are neither provble nor disprovable.

    This is well known.

    And well undeerstood. The claim on the subject line is false. >>>>>>>>>
    a fact or piece of information that shows that something
    exists or is true:
    https://dictionary.cambridge.org/us/dictionary/english/proof

    We require that terms of art are used with their term-of-art
    meaning and

    The fundamental base meaning of Truth[0] itself remains the same >>>>>>> no matter what idiomatic meanings say.

    Irrelevant as the subject line does not mention truth.
    Therefore, no need to revise my initial comment.

    The notion of truth is entailed by the subject line:
    misconception means ~True.

    The title line means that something is misunderstood but that something >>>> is not the meaning of "true".

    It is untrue because it is misunderstood.

    Mathematical incompleteness is not a claim so it cannot be untrue.


    That mathematical incompleteness coherently exists <is> claim.

    Proven by Godel.

    The closest that it can possibly be interpreted as true would
    be that because key elements of proof[0] have been specified
    as not existing in proof[math] math is intentionally made less
    than complete.

    Nope, it seems you can't show a source for your idea of proof[0] so I
    guess you are admitting you are just a lying idiot about it.


    When-so-ever any expression of formal or natural language X lacks
    a connection to its truthmaker X remains untrue.


    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Richard Damon@21:1/5 to olcott on Wed Feb 5 21:33:55 2025
    On 2/5/25 11:05 AM, olcott wrote:
    On 2/5/2025 6:08 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
    On 2/4/25 11:30 PM, olcott wrote:
    On 2/3/2025 6:39 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
    On 2/3/25 12:00 PM, olcott wrote:
    On 2/1/2025 12:23 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
    On 2/1/25 1:10 PM, olcott wrote:
    On 2/1/2025 7:56 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
    On 1/31/25 10:43 PM, olcott wrote:
    On 1/31/2025 7:52 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
    On 1/31/25 12:42 PM, olcott wrote:
    On 1/31/2025 10:08 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
    On 1/31/25 10:20 AM, olcott wrote:
    On 1/31/2025 8:49 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
    On 1/30/25 8:24 PM, olcott wrote:
    On 1/30/2025 7:06 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
    On 1/30/25 6:10 PM, olcott wrote:
    Within the entire body of analytical truth any >>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> expression of language that has no sequence of >>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> formalized semantic deductive inference steps from the >>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> formalized semantic foundational truths of this system >>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> are simply untrue in this system. (Isomorphic to >>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> provable from axioms).

    In other words when any expression of language of any >>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> system (formal or informal) has no semantic connection >>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> to its semantic meaning in this system then this >>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> expression is simply nonsense in this system. "This >>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> sentence is untrue" is Boolean nonsense.

    Copyright PL Olcott 2016 through 2025.


    Except that isn't what incompleteness says.

    Incompleteness is about the existance of statements >>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> which are TRUE, because there is a sequence of formal >>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> semantic deduction that reaches the statement, abet an >>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> infinite one, but there is no finite sequnce of formal >>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> semantic deduction to form a proof.


    That might be correct. If it is correct then all then >>>>>>>>>>>>>>> all that it is really saying is that math is incomplete >>>>>>>>>>>>>>> because some key pieces were intentionally left out. >>>>>>>>>>>>>>
    What was left out?


    If there exists no contiguous sequence of semantic
    deductive inference
    steps from the basic facts of a system establishing that >>>>>>>>>>>>> the semantic meaning of this expression has a value of >>>>>>>>>>>>> Boolean true in this system then this expression is simply >>>>>>>>>>>>> not true in this system even if it may be
    true in other more expressive systems.

    The system is incomplete in the artificially contrivance >>>>>>>>>>>>> way of
    deliberately defined system to be insufficiently expressive. >>>>>>>>>>>>>

    And what about the fact that ther *IS* a contiguos sequence, >>>>>>>>>>>> infinite in length, that makes the statement true that you >>>>>>>>>>>> don't understand.


    "Incomplete" means that there is no contiguous sequence of >>>>>>>>>>> inference
    steps within the expressiveness of this specific formal system. >>>>>>>>>>>

    No, "Incomplete" means that there is some true statement that >>>>>>>>>> can not be proven.


    Within empirical truth this is possible.
    Within analytical truth this is impossible.

    No, you only think it is impossible, becuase you don't know what >>>>>>>> you are talking about.


    Unless there is a semantic connection with
    a truthmaker to what makes the expression
    true IS IS NOT TRUE.

    Right, and that can be an INFINITE series of connection, which >>>>>>>> thus don't form a proof.


    It does make a {proof} within the foundational base meaning
    of the term {proof} even though it may not meet the idiomatic
    term-of-the-art meaning from math. The generic notion of {Truth} >>>>>>> itself is only defined in terms of base meanings. When math
    diverges from this it is no longer talking about actual truth.



    The "foundational base meaning" of a proof in Formal Logic is a
    FINITE series.


    True[0] cannot possibly exist for any expression of language that
    is only made true by a semantic connection to its truthmaker.

    Which can be a connection of infinite length.


    This makes the notion of provable[math] essentially a misnomer
    because it attempts to override and supersede the most basic
    foundation of the notion of truth itself.

    But provable is a statment about the existance of a FINITE sequence
    of connection


    That IS NOT what Proof[0] means.
    Proof[0] means that a connection to a truth-maker exists.


    Show me an actual formal system defined that allows "Proof" to be an
    infinite connection to the truth-maker. All you are doing ios proving
    that you are just making up everything you say,


    Math is not allowed to change the base meaning of terms.

    Wrong. "Language" is somewhat ambigous, and technical systems often
    refine meaning.

    It isn't "Math" that "redefined" the term, but "Formal Logic", which
    clairifies that proofs have to be something that brings knowledge about
    the result using just the tools of the system.

    If the system can't show the truth in a knowable, i.e. finite sequence
    of steps, it can't prove it.

    When-so-ever any expression of formal or natural language X lacks
    a connection to its truthmaker X remains untrue.

    Right, but that connection can be infinite.

    And an infinite connection is not considered a "Proof".

    SInce you can't show where you get your meanings, you are just admitting
    that you are just making things up and being a liar.

    Sorry, but you are just proving that you are nothing but a pathological
    lying idiot.


    I think part of the problem is you just don't understand what a Formal
    System is, and since Incompleteness is a property of Formal System
    (not just general philosophy) that is an important part.

    Of course, your big part for not understanding Formal Systens is you
    don't believe you need to follow the rules, and that is fundamental to
    Formal Logic, so its concepts are just foreign to you.

    Sorry, you are just proving your total ignorance of what you talk
    about, and so ignorant that you can't see your ignorance.



    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Mikko@21:1/5 to olcott on Thu Feb 6 10:02:22 2025
    On 2025-02-05 16:03:21 +0000, olcott said:

    On 2/5/2025 1:44 AM, Mikko wrote:
    On 2025-02-04 16:11:08 +0000, olcott said:

    On 2/4/2025 3:22 AM, Mikko wrote:
    On 2025-02-03 16:54:08 +0000, olcott said:

    On 2/3/2025 9:07 AM, Mikko wrote:
    On 2025-02-03 03:30:46 +0000, olcott said:

    On 2/2/2025 3:27 AM, Mikko wrote:
    On 2025-02-01 14:09:54 +0000, olcott said:

    On 2/1/2025 3:19 AM, Mikko wrote:
    On 2025-01-31 13:57:02 +0000, olcott said:

    On 1/31/2025 3:24 AM, Mikko wrote:
    On 2025-01-30 23:10:18 +0000, olcott said:

    Within the entire body of analytical truth any expression of language
    that has no sequence of formalized semantic deductive inference steps
    from the formalized semantic foundational truths of this system are
    simply untrue in this system. (Isomorphic to provable from axioms).

    If there is a misconception then you have misconceived something. It is well
    known that it is possible to construct a formal theory where some formulas
    are neither provble nor disprovable.

    This is well known.

    And well undeerstood. The claim on the subject line is false. >>>>>>>>>
    a fact or piece of information that shows that something
    exists or is true:
    https://dictionary.cambridge.org/us/dictionary/english/proof

    We require that terms of art are used with their term-of-art meaning and

    The fundamental base meaning of Truth[0] itself remains the same >>>>>>> no matter what idiomatic meanings say.

    Irrelevant as the subject line does not mention truth.
    Therefore, no need to revise my initial comment.

    The notion of truth is entailed by the subject line:
    misconception means ~True.

    The title line means that something is misunderstood but that something >>>> is not the meaning of "true".

    It is untrue because it is misunderstood.

    Mathematical incompleteness is not a claim so it cannot be untrue.

    That mathematical incompleteness coherently exists <is> claim.

    Yes, but you didn't claim that.

    The closest that it can possibly be interpreted as true would
    be that because key elements of proof[0] have been specified
    as not existing in proof[math] math is intentionally made less
    than complete.

    Math is not intentionally incomplete. Many theories are incomplete, intertionally or otherwise, but they don't restrict the rest of math.
    But there are areas of matheimatics that are not yet studied.

    When-so-ever any expression of formal or natural language X lacks
    a connection to its truthmaker X remains untrue.

    An expresion can be true in one interpretation and false in another.

    --
    Mikko

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)