• Re: Analytic Expressions of language not linked to their semantic meani

    From Richard Damon@21:1/5 to olcott on Sun Jul 28 21:16:39 2024
    On 7/28/24 8:44 PM, olcott wrote:
    The truth about every expression of language that can be known
    to be true on the basis of its meaning expressed in language is
    that a lack of connection simply means untrue. The Tarski
    Undefinability theorem and the 1931 Gödel incompleteness Theorem
    never could understand that.

    It seems simplistic except when understood to be saying the
    same thing as this much more complex analysis. Please take a
    quick peek at that paper. It gives me much more credibility.

    Prolog detects [and rejects] pathological self reference in the Gödel sentence

    https://www.researchgate.net/publication/350789898_Prolog_detects_and_rejects_pathological_self_reference_in_the_Godel_sentence


    The problem is that moth "truths" aren't True by just the meaning of
    their words.

    Truth by the meaning of the words is almost the definition of the axioms
    of a system, or maybe the simpler theorems.

    After all, what in the meaning of the words says that the square of the hypotenuse of a right triangle is equal to the sum of the squares of the
    other two sides?

    So, those theorems are talking about truths that are much more
    complicated, truths that aren't just from the basic meaning of the
    words, but are things that are established by a perhaps long, or even
    infinite, chain of logical deductions from that fundamental truths that
    you established from the basic meanings.

    Note to, "Prolog" is not the be-all of logic. Can you use it to "prove"
    the pythogrean theorem?

    Also, You haven't put Godel's actual sentence into Prolog, just an
    incorret approximation of that sentence, that is even only expressed in
    a system other than the system that the sentence proves to be incomplete
    (Your sentences is something implied in MM, not the actual sentence from
    PA).

    I don't think Prolog is capable of putting in Godel sentence, as it
    relies on logic forms more advanced than Prolog can handle, and Prolog
    has very limited support for "math" like is used in the Godel sentence.

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  • From Richard Damon@21:1/5 to olcott on Mon Jul 29 21:37:32 2024
    On 7/29/24 9:38 AM, olcott wrote:
    On 7/28/2024 8:16 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
    On 7/28/24 8:44 PM, olcott wrote:
    The truth about every expression of language that can be known
    to be true on the basis of its meaning expressed in language is
    that a lack of connection simply means untrue. The Tarski
    Undefinability theorem and the 1931 Gödel incompleteness Theorem
    never could understand that.

    It seems simplistic except when understood to be saying the
    same thing as this much more complex analysis. Please take a
    quick peek at that paper. It gives me much more credibility.

    Prolog detects [and rejects] pathological self reference in the Gödel
    sentence

    https://www.researchgate.net/publication/350789898_Prolog_detects_and_rejects_pathological_self_reference_in_the_Godel_sentence


    The problem is that moth "truths" aren't True by just the meaning of
    their words.


    {The truth about every expression of (formal or formalized
    natural language) language that can be known to be true
    on the basis of its meaning expressed in language}.

    Corrects the analytic / synthetic distinction so that
    it is unequivocal thus not subject to Quine's objections. https://plato.stanford.edu/Entries/analytic-synthetic/

    How? The fact that SOME true statement are true by the meaning of their
    words says nothing about statements that aren't so simple that their
    word establish their meaning.


    Every truth that can be expressed in language is an analytic
    truth, such as "some pediatricians are rich".

    Nope. In fact, your example is a synthetic truth as you need to examine
    the world to determine if the statement is true. There could be a world
    with no rich pediatricians, perhaps because there are no pediatricians.

    In fact, "Analytic Truth" doesn't mean true by the meaning of the words,
    but a statement that is true based on the rules and assumptions of the
    system, and independent on the world you are talking about. It can be
    directly based on the meaning of its words, or derived by an sequence of
    truth preserving deductions from statements that are true by the meaning
    of the words (as used in the system, and with consistant meaning).


    Every truth that cannot be expressed in language is a synthetic
    truth such as the actual sound of dogs barking.

    Nope. The statement "Snow is white" is a synthetic truth, as its truth
    does not derive SOLEY by the meaning of the words, but needs to look at
    the attributes of the world.

    You are just showing you ignorance of the meaning of the words you are
    using.


    A lack up connection from an expression to its semantic
    meaning within the objects of this language such as PA
    simply means untrue in PA.

    But, as I showed, there *IS* a semantic meaning within the object of the language PA


    A connection of this same expression in another different
    language within the objects of this language such as
    meta-math means true in meta-math.


    But G is shown to have a connection (infinite in length) to the truth
    makers of PA, and thus to be analytically true in PA. That this proof of
    this is done in MM, doesn't negate the fact that the proof show the
    sequence is totally in PA.

    This same thing goes for Tarski's analysis of the Liar Paradox.
    The formalized version of "This sentence is not true" is not
    true in his theory.

    Nope, you just don't understand what he is saying, Your stupidity
    doesn't make his statement incorrect.


    The formalized version of:
    This sentence is not true: "This sentence is not true"
    is true in his metatheory.


    Your oversimplification just breaks your logic and proves your ignorance.



    The difference between PA and MM is that


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  • From Mikko@21:1/5 to olcott on Tue Jul 30 10:33:03 2024
    On 2024-07-29 00:44:41 +0000, olcott said:

    The truth about every expression of language that can be known
    to be true on the basis of its meaning expressed in language is
    that a lack of connection simply means untrue.

    Does that really mean something? If the significance of the lack of
    connection is restricted to sentences where the connection exists
    then it seems that you are talking about nothing.

    --
    Mikko

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  • From Mikko@21:1/5 to olcott on Wed Jul 31 11:03:28 2024
    On 2024-07-30 13:40:55 +0000, olcott said:

    On 7/30/2024 2:33 AM, Mikko wrote:
    On 2024-07-29 00:44:41 +0000, olcott said:

    The truth about every expression of language that can be known
    to be true on the basis of its meaning expressed in language is
    that a lack of connection simply means untrue.

    Does that really mean something? If the significance of the lack of
    connection is restricted to sentences where the connection exists
    then it seems that you are talking about nothing.


    https://plato.stanford.edu/Entries/analytic-synthetic/
    I had to redefine the analytic side of the analytic/synthetic
    distinction because Quine convinced most everyone that this
    distinction does not exist.

    You cannot redefine side wihout redefining the other side and the
    distinction itself. Is your redefinition equivalent to the one
    at https://plato.stanford.edu/Entries/analytic-synthetic/ or did
    you find out that that distincition is not the one that exists?

    Every expression x of (formal or natural) language L that
    can be connected to the its semantic meaning in L by a
    sequence of truth preserving operations is true in L.
    The same thing applies to ~x making x false in L.

    That does not mean anything aunless you define "truth preserving
    operations" and how they connect semantic meanings to expressions.

    When x and ~x are both unprovable in L then x is not a
    truth-bearer in L.

    Can you prove that every expression that is true in L by your definition
    is provable by the rules of L?

    --
    Mikko

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  • From Richard Damon@21:1/5 to olcott on Wed Jul 31 20:18:37 2024
    On 7/31/24 12:51 PM, olcott wrote:
    On 7/28/2024 7:44 PM, olcott wrote:
    The truth about every expression of language that can be known
    to be true on the basis of its meaning expressed in language is
    that a lack of connection simply means untrue. The Tarski
    Undefinability theorem and the 1931 Gödel incompleteness Theorem
    never could understand that.


    What I am doing is establishing the foundation of analytical
    truth. Every expression of (formal or natural) language that
    lacks a truth-maker connection to its meaning in this system
    is simply untrue in this system. When G and ~G lack a truth-maker
    in PA then G is simply not a truth-bearer in PA.


    Except that G does have truth-makers in PA, it just is an infinite
    sequence of steps, done by testing EVERY natural number against the relationship, and we know that none of them will ever satisfy it be
    knowledge in MM, but that knowledge coming from MM doesn't negate that
    it can be tested in PA and must get the same answer.

    The fact that to show G is true in PA needs an infinte set of steps in
    PA means that those do not form a proof of it in PA.

    The fact that this is just beyond your ability to comprehend doesn't
    make it not true, it just shows your lack of knowledge of the field.

    That you keep repeating the false claim, after having it expalined to
    you, just shows that you are nothing but a pathetic ignorant pathologicl
    lying idiot.

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  • From Mikko@21:1/5 to olcott on Fri Aug 2 09:43:46 2024
    On 2024-07-31 14:46:17 +0000, olcott said:

    On 7/31/2024 3:03 AM, Mikko wrote:
    On 2024-07-30 13:40:55 +0000, olcott said:

    On 7/30/2024 2:33 AM, Mikko wrote:
    On 2024-07-29 00:44:41 +0000, olcott said:

    The truth about every expression of language that can be known
    to be true on the basis of its meaning expressed in language is
    that a lack of connection simply means untrue.

    Does that really mean something? If the significance of the lack of
    connection is restricted to sentences where the connection exists
    then it seems that you are talking about nothing.


    https://plato.stanford.edu/Entries/analytic-synthetic/
    I had to redefine the analytic side of the analytic/synthetic
    distinction because Quine convinced most everyone that this
    distinction does not exist.

    You cannot redefine side wihout redefining the other side and the
    distinction itself. Is your redefinition equivalent to the one
    at https://plato.stanford.edu/Entries/analytic-synthetic/ or did
    you find out that that distincition is not the one that exists?

    Quine got totally confused by synonymity. He never understood
    that the term {Bachelor} was defined in terms of
    (~Married + Adult + Male).

    It is not a good idea to lie about other people.

    When reqding Quine, you should ask yourself why your presentation
    is much less convincing than Quine's.

    --
    Mikko

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  • From Mikko@21:1/5 to olcott on Sat Aug 3 12:50:35 2024
    On 2024-08-02 12:19:31 +0000, olcott said:

    On 8/2/2024 1:43 AM, Mikko wrote:
    On 2024-07-31 14:46:17 +0000, olcott said:

    On 7/31/2024 3:03 AM, Mikko wrote:
    On 2024-07-30 13:40:55 +0000, olcott said:

    On 7/30/2024 2:33 AM, Mikko wrote:
    On 2024-07-29 00:44:41 +0000, olcott said:

    The truth about every expression of language that can be known
    to be true on the basis of its meaning expressed in language is
    that a lack of connection simply means untrue.

    Does that really mean something? If the significance of the lack of >>>>>> connection is restricted to sentences where the connection exists
    then it seems that you are talking about nothing.


    https://plato.stanford.edu/Entries/analytic-synthetic/
    I had to redefine the analytic side of the analytic/synthetic
    distinction because Quine convinced most everyone that this
    distinction does not exist.

    You cannot redefine side wihout redefining the other side and the
    distinction itself. Is your redefinition equivalent to the one
    at https://plato.stanford.edu/Entries/analytic-synthetic/ or did
    you find out that that distincition is not the one that exists?

    Quine got totally confused by synonymity. He never understood
    that the term {Bachelor} was defined in terms of
    (~Married + Adult + Male).

    It is not a good idea to lie about other people.

    When reqding Quine, you should ask yourself why your presentation
    is much less convincing than Quine's.

    Try and show the details of how I am incorrect.

    What you said (quoted above) about Quine is insulting and unjustified,
    which alone is wrong.

    --
    Mikko

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
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  • From Richard Damon@21:1/5 to olcott on Sat Aug 3 12:06:15 2024
    On 8/3/24 9:44 AM, olcott wrote:
    On 8/3/2024 4:50 AM, Mikko wrote:
    On 2024-08-02 12:19:31 +0000, olcott said:

    On 8/2/2024 1:43 AM, Mikko wrote:
    On 2024-07-31 14:46:17 +0000, olcott said:

    On 7/31/2024 3:03 AM, Mikko wrote:
    On 2024-07-30 13:40:55 +0000, olcott said:

    On 7/30/2024 2:33 AM, Mikko wrote:
    On 2024-07-29 00:44:41 +0000, olcott said:

    The truth about every expression of language that can be known >>>>>>>>> to be true on the basis of its meaning expressed in language is >>>>>>>>> that a lack of connection simply means untrue.

    Does that really mean something? If the significance of the lack of >>>>>>>> connection is restricted to sentences where the connection exists >>>>>>>> then it seems that you are talking about nothing.


    https://plato.stanford.edu/Entries/analytic-synthetic/
    I had to redefine the analytic side of the analytic/synthetic
    distinction because Quine convinced most everyone that this
    distinction does not exist.

    You cannot redefine side wihout redefining the other side and the
    distinction itself. Is your redefinition equivalent to the one
    at https://plato.stanford.edu/Entries/analytic-synthetic/ or did
    you find out that that distincition is not the one that exists?

    Quine got totally confused by synonymity. He never understood
    that the term {Bachelor} was defined in terms of
    (~Married + Adult + Male).

    It is not a good idea to lie about other people.

    When reqding Quine, you should ask yourself why your presentation
    is much less convincing than Quine's.

    Try and show the details of how I am incorrect.

    What you said (quoted above) about Quine is insulting and unjustified,
    which alone is wrong.


    The bottom line here is that every objection that he could
    have possibly made is addressed by this augmentation to
    the definition of {analytic truth}

    *Original definition* of {Analytic truth}
    Every expression of (formal or natural language) that is
    true on the basis of its meaning...

    *Is augmented by this*
    within a system of reasoning is only true when this
    expression is linked by truth preserving operations to
    its meaning within this system using this language.

    The superset of all of these systems that contains all
    analytic truth is called {the accurate model of the actual world}.



    And so you agree that Godel's G is True in PA.


    And, your last statement is just rubbish as many system don't actually
    talk about the "actual world" but theoretical worlds with no connnection
    to our own, and an "accurate model" of the actual world is impossible,
    as that would require that would require the precise measurement of
    every aspect of it, which appears impossible due to the limitiations
    imposed by quantum mechanics.

    Sorry, you logic is just based on a clearly incorrect model of logic,
    and the world.

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  • From Richard Damon@21:1/5 to olcott on Sat Aug 3 13:53:31 2024
    On 8/3/24 12:24 PM, olcott wrote:
    On 8/3/2024 11:06 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
    On 8/3/24 9:44 AM, olcott wrote:
    On 8/3/2024 4:50 AM, Mikko wrote:
    On 2024-08-02 12:19:31 +0000, olcott said:

    On 8/2/2024 1:43 AM, Mikko wrote:
    On 2024-07-31 14:46:17 +0000, olcott said:

    On 7/31/2024 3:03 AM, Mikko wrote:
    On 2024-07-30 13:40:55 +0000, olcott said:

    On 7/30/2024 2:33 AM, Mikko wrote:
    On 2024-07-29 00:44:41 +0000, olcott said:

    The truth about every expression of language that can be known >>>>>>>>>>> to be true on the basis of its meaning expressed in language is >>>>>>>>>>> that a lack of connection simply means untrue.

    Does that really mean something? If the significance of the >>>>>>>>>> lack of
    connection is restricted to sentences where the connection exists >>>>>>>>>> then it seems that you are talking about nothing.


    https://plato.stanford.edu/Entries/analytic-synthetic/
    I had to redefine the analytic side of the analytic/synthetic >>>>>>>>> distinction because Quine convinced most everyone that this
    distinction does not exist.

    You cannot redefine side wihout redefining the other side and the >>>>>>>> distinction itself. Is your redefinition equivalent to the one >>>>>>>> at https://plato.stanford.edu/Entries/analytic-synthetic/ or did >>>>>>>> you find out that that distincition is not the one that exists? >>>>>>>
    Quine got totally confused by synonymity. He never understood
    that the term {Bachelor} was defined in terms of
    (~Married + Adult + Male).

    It is not a good idea to lie about other people.

    When reqding Quine, you should ask yourself why your presentation
    is much less convincing than Quine's.

    Try and show the details of how I am incorrect.

    What you said (quoted above) about Quine is insulting and unjustified, >>>> which alone is wrong.


    The bottom line here is that every objection that he could
    have possibly made is addressed by this augmentation to
    the definition of {analytic truth}

    *Original definition* of {Analytic truth}
    Every expression of (formal or natural language) that is
    true on the basis of its meaning...

    *Is augmented by this*
    within a system of reasoning is only true when this
    expression is linked by truth preserving operations to
    its meaning within this system using this language.

    The superset of all of these systems that contains all
    analytic truth is called {the accurate model of the actual world}.



    And so you agree that Godel's G is True in PA.


    It seems that you are the only one that believes that
    there are any sequence of truth preserving operations
    from G to the axioms of PA showing that G is true in PA.


    You are sorely mistaken in that beleif, but that error is caused by your ignorance of the topic.

    Anyone who understands Godel's proof would understand that fact.

    Note, you have the sentence backwards, the sequence is from the axioms
    to G, not G to the axioms.

    That just shows you don't understand how to do logical proofs.

    We know what we can demonstrate by a sequence from the axioms to the
    statement.

    We can form an actual proof for each individual number, but just
    cranking the Relationship (which will always have a finite number of
    steps) showing that this number does not satisfy the relationship.

    By just chaining the infinite set of these proofs for every number, we
    get that infinite chain of steps that establish G as true.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
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  • From Richard Damon@21:1/5 to olcott on Sat Aug 3 19:04:05 2024
    On 8/3/24 2:40 PM, olcott wrote:
    On 8/3/2024 12:53 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
    On 8/3/24 12:24 PM, olcott wrote:
    On 8/3/2024 11:06 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
    On 8/3/24 9:44 AM, olcott wrote:
    On 8/3/2024 4:50 AM, Mikko wrote:
    On 2024-08-02 12:19:31 +0000, olcott said:

    On 8/2/2024 1:43 AM, Mikko wrote:
    On 2024-07-31 14:46:17 +0000, olcott said:

    On 7/31/2024 3:03 AM, Mikko wrote:
    On 2024-07-30 13:40:55 +0000, olcott said:

    On 7/30/2024 2:33 AM, Mikko wrote:
    On 2024-07-29 00:44:41 +0000, olcott said:

    The truth about every expression of language that can be known >>>>>>>>>>>>> to be true on the basis of its meaning expressed in
    language is
    that a lack of connection simply means untrue.

    Does that really mean something? If the significance of the >>>>>>>>>>>> lack of
    connection is restricted to sentences where the connection >>>>>>>>>>>> exists
    then it seems that you are talking about nothing.


    https://plato.stanford.edu/Entries/analytic-synthetic/
    I had to redefine the analytic side of the analytic/synthetic >>>>>>>>>>> distinction because Quine convinced most everyone that this >>>>>>>>>>> distinction does not exist.

    You cannot redefine side wihout redefining the other side and the >>>>>>>>>> distinction itself. Is your redefinition equivalent to the one >>>>>>>>>> at https://plato.stanford.edu/Entries/analytic-synthetic/ or did >>>>>>>>>> you find out that that distincition is not the one that exists? >>>>>>>>>
    Quine got totally confused by synonymity. He never understood >>>>>>>>> that the term {Bachelor} was defined in terms of
    (~Married + Adult + Male).

    It is not a good idea to lie about other people.

    When reqding Quine, you should ask yourself why your presentation >>>>>>>> is much less convincing than Quine's.

    Try and show the details of how I am incorrect.

    What you said (quoted above) about Quine is insulting and
    unjustified,
    which alone is wrong.


    The bottom line here is that every objection that he could
    have possibly made is addressed by this augmentation to
    the definition of {analytic truth}

    *Original definition* of {Analytic truth}
    Every expression of (formal or natural language) that is
    true on the basis of its meaning...

    *Is augmented by this*
    within a system of reasoning is only true when this
    expression is linked by truth preserving operations to
    its meaning within this system using this language.

    The superset of all of these systems that contains all
    analytic truth is called {the accurate model of the actual world}.



    And so you agree that Godel's G is True in PA.


    It seems that you are the only one that believes that
    there are any sequence of truth preserving operations
    from G to the axioms of PA showing that G is true in PA.


    You are sorely mistaken in that beleif, but that error is caused by
    your ignorance of the topic.

    Anyone who understands Godel's proof would understand that fact.

    Note, you have the sentence backwards, the sequence is from the axioms
    to G, not G to the axioms.

    That just shows you don't understand how to do logical proofs.

    We know what we can demonstrate by a sequence from the axioms to the
    statement.

    We can form an actual proof for each individual number, but just
    cranking the Relationship (which will always have a finite number of
    steps) showing that this number does not satisfy the relationship.

    By just chaining the infinite set of these proofs for every number, we
    get that infinite chain of steps that establish G as true.


    Ah I see now.
    There is not a proof with an infinite sequence of steps
    that proves G in PA as you claimed. Instead an infinite
    set of proofs fails to prove G in PA.

    There is no such thing as a proof with an infinite number of steps.

    That is like talking about a triangle with 5 sides.


    The infinite sequence of steps shows that G is true, as it shows that no
    number exists that statisfies the given PRR, which is exactly what G claims.

    Your misuse of the word "prove" just shows your utter ignorance of what
    you are talking about.

    The infinite set of proofs DOES estabilish that G is true, as G is a
    statment that claims that no number satisfied that relationship. Having
    a proof for every possible that it doesn't satisfiy that relationship,
    shows that G is in fact true, as no number can exist that falsifies G.


    Yet that would be back to the simple version of G that
    merely claims to be unprovable in PA. Not some other
    different highly abstract relationship that you had
    been claiming.

    There is no such G, except in your imagination.


    Do you understand that no one needs to have any
    understanding of the proof to refute it when they
    can show that its conclusion is incorrect?


    Doesn't work that way. Since your "proof" that it is wrong is based on
    your own assumptions, all you prove is that your assumptions are untrue.

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  • From Python@21:1/5 to All on Sun Aug 4 01:58:32 2024
    Le 04/08/2024 à 01:46, olcott a écrit :

    I may not have done it correctly yet any proof can be
    refuted by simply showing that its conclusion is wrong
    with no need to even understand any of the steps.

    This is kind a weak against proofs that you are wrong Peter.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
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  • From Richard Damon@21:1/5 to olcott on Sat Aug 3 22:07:08 2024
    On 8/3/24 7:46 PM, olcott wrote:
    On 8/3/2024 6:04 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
    On 8/3/24 2:40 PM, olcott wrote:
    On 8/3/2024 12:53 PM, Richard Damon wrote:
    On 8/3/24 12:24 PM, olcott wrote:
    On 8/3/2024 11:06 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
    On 8/3/24 9:44 AM, olcott wrote:
    On 8/3/2024 4:50 AM, Mikko wrote:
    On 2024-08-02 12:19:31 +0000, olcott said:

    On 8/2/2024 1:43 AM, Mikko wrote:
    On 2024-07-31 14:46:17 +0000, olcott said:

    On 7/31/2024 3:03 AM, Mikko wrote:
    On 2024-07-30 13:40:55 +0000, olcott said:

    On 7/30/2024 2:33 AM, Mikko wrote:
    On 2024-07-29 00:44:41 +0000, olcott said:

    The truth about every expression of language that can be >>>>>>>>>>>>>>> known
    to be true on the basis of its meaning expressed in >>>>>>>>>>>>>>> language is
    that a lack of connection simply means untrue.

    Does that really mean something? If the significance of >>>>>>>>>>>>>> the lack of
    connection is restricted to sentences where the connection >>>>>>>>>>>>>> exists
    then it seems that you are talking about nothing.


    https://plato.stanford.edu/Entries/analytic-synthetic/ >>>>>>>>>>>>> I had to redefine the analytic side of the analytic/synthetic >>>>>>>>>>>>> distinction because Quine convinced most everyone that this >>>>>>>>>>>>> distinction does not exist.

    You cannot redefine side wihout redefining the other side >>>>>>>>>>>> and the
    distinction itself. Is your redefinition equivalent to the one >>>>>>>>>>>> at https://plato.stanford.edu/Entries/analytic-synthetic/ or >>>>>>>>>>>> did
    you find out that that distincition is not the one that exists? >>>>>>>>>>>
    Quine got totally confused by synonymity. He never understood >>>>>>>>>>> that the term {Bachelor} was defined in terms of
    (~Married + Adult + Male).

    It is not a good idea to lie about other people.

    When reqding Quine, you should ask yourself why your presentation >>>>>>>>>> is much less convincing than Quine's.

    Try and show the details of how I am incorrect.

    What you said (quoted above) about Quine is insulting and
    unjustified,
    which alone is wrong.


    The bottom line here is that every objection that he could
    have possibly made is addressed by this augmentation to
    the definition of {analytic truth}

    *Original definition* of {Analytic truth}
    Every expression of (formal or natural language) that is
    true on the basis of its meaning...

    *Is augmented by this*
    within a system of reasoning is only true when this
    expression is linked by truth preserving operations to
    its meaning within this system using this language.

    The superset of all of these systems that contains all
    analytic truth is called {the accurate model of the actual world}. >>>>>>>


    And so you agree that Godel's G is True in PA.


    It seems that you are the only one that believes that
    there are any sequence of truth preserving operations
    from G to the axioms of PA showing that G is true in PA.


    You are sorely mistaken in that beleif, but that error is caused by
    your ignorance of the topic.

    Anyone who understands Godel's proof would understand that fact.

    Note, you have the sentence backwards, the sequence is from the
    axioms to G, not G to the axioms.

    That just shows you don't understand how to do logical proofs.

    We know what we can demonstrate by a sequence from the axioms to the
    statement.

    We can form an actual proof for each individual number, but just
    cranking the Relationship (which will always have a finite number of
    steps) showing that this number does not satisfy the relationship.

    By just chaining the infinite set of these proofs for every number,
    we get that infinite chain of steps that establish G as true.


    Ah I see now.
    There is not a proof with an infinite sequence of steps
    that proves G in PA as you claimed. Instead an infinite
    set of proofs fails to prove G in PA.

    There is no such thing as a proof with an infinite number of steps.

    That is like talking about a triangle with 5 sides.


    The infinite sequence of steps shows that G is true, as it shows that
    no number exists that statisfies the given PRR, which is exactly what
    G claims.


    That is not a sequence of steps in PA
    It is an infinite set of finite sequences of steps in PA.

    which can be placed end to end to form a single sequence.


    Your misuse of the word "prove" just shows your utter ignorance of
    what you are talking about.


    That was my mistake.

    The infinite set of proofs DOES estabilish that G is true, as G is a
    statment that claims that no number satisfied that relationship.
    Having a proof for every possible that it doesn't satisfiy that
    relationship, shows that G is in fact true, as no number can exist
    that falsifies G.


    Yet PA is incapable of evaluating this.

    Of course it is capable.

    I don't think that PA can even represent more than
    one proof at a time, so it is no sequence of steps in PA.

    Why do you say that?

    Do you have a source of that?

    Note, PA could be the field of Peano Arithmatic.



    Yet that would be back to the simple version of G that
    merely claims to be unprovable in PA. Not some other
    different highly abstract relationship that you had
    been claiming.

    There is no such G, except in your imagination.


    *Gödel stated that this was his intention*
    ...We are therefore confronted with a proposition which asserts
    its own unprovability. 15 ... (Gödel 1931:40-41)

    Right, we reach that point as a result proven as an interpretation in
    MM. It is NOT the actual statement of G, only a result that can be
    derived from it in MM. That because of the nature of the relationship generated, G can only be true if it is unprovable, but a proof becomes
    the evidence that it is not true.

    Such a statement, must be true and unprovable, as a provable statement
    that is false is a contradiction.

    Note, a statement can not be derived that has that meaning solely from information in the system, or IT becomes the proof that forces the contradiction, but when that meaning requires information from a
    meta-system, it establishes the truth (and unprovability) of the statement.

    The fact that you don't seem to understand how formal system and
    meta-systems work makes this all unintelligible.



    Do you understand that no one needs to have any
    understanding of the proof to refute it when they
    can show that its conclusion is incorrect?


    Doesn't work that way. Since your "proof" that it is wrong is based on
    your own assumptions, all you prove is that your assumptions are untrue.


    I may not have done it correctly yet any proof can be
    refuted by simply showing that its conclusion is wrong
    with no need to even understand any of the steps.


    Nope. At best you can show that one of three things are true:
    1) YOUR proof is wrong.
    2) The proof you are refuting is wrong, or
    3) The system is inconsistant.

    To get anyone to think anything past the first option, you need a SOLID
    proof.

    You are just proving you don't understand how logic works, so you don't
    get by option 1.

    If your argument needs ANY non-standard claims, the result will be the assumption of option 1.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Mikko@21:1/5 to olcott on Sun Aug 4 10:23:52 2024
    On 2024-08-03 13:44:25 +0000, olcott said:

    On 8/3/2024 4:50 AM, Mikko wrote:
    On 2024-08-02 12:19:31 +0000, olcott said:

    On 8/2/2024 1:43 AM, Mikko wrote:
    On 2024-07-31 14:46:17 +0000, olcott said:

    On 7/31/2024 3:03 AM, Mikko wrote:
    On 2024-07-30 13:40:55 +0000, olcott said:

    On 7/30/2024 2:33 AM, Mikko wrote:
    On 2024-07-29 00:44:41 +0000, olcott said:

    The truth about every expression of language that can be known >>>>>>>>> to be true on the basis of its meaning expressed in language is >>>>>>>>> that a lack of connection simply means untrue.

    Does that really mean something? If the significance of the lack of >>>>>>>> connection is restricted to sentences where the connection exists >>>>>>>> then it seems that you are talking about nothing.


    https://plato.stanford.edu/Entries/analytic-synthetic/
    I had to redefine the analytic side of the analytic/synthetic
    distinction because Quine convinced most everyone that this
    distinction does not exist.

    You cannot redefine side wihout redefining the other side and the
    distinction itself. Is your redefinition equivalent to the one
    at https://plato.stanford.edu/Entries/analytic-synthetic/ or did
    you find out that that distincition is not the one that exists?

    Quine got totally confused by synonymity. He never understood
    that the term {Bachelor} was defined in terms of
    (~Married + Adult + Male).

    It is not a good idea to lie about other people.

    When reqding Quine, you should ask yourself why your presentation
    is much less convincing than Quine's.

    Try and show the details of how I am incorrect.

    What you said (quoted above) about Quine is insulting and unjustified,
    which alone is wrong.

    The bottom line here is that every objection that he could
    have possibly made is addressed by this augmentation to
    the definition of {analytic truth}

    *Original definition* of {Analytic truth}
    Every expression of (formal or natural language) that is
    true on the basis of its meaning...

    So what is wrong with Quines opinion that the truth of "A bachelor
    is not married" comes from the meaning of the words?

    --
    Mikko

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Mikko@21:1/5 to olcott on Tue Aug 6 11:19:04 2024
    On 2024-08-04 12:04:23 +0000, olcott said:

    On 8/4/2024 2:23 AM, Mikko wrote:
    On 2024-08-03 13:44:25 +0000, olcott said:

    On 8/3/2024 4:50 AM, Mikko wrote:
    On 2024-08-02 12:19:31 +0000, olcott said:

    On 8/2/2024 1:43 AM, Mikko wrote:
    On 2024-07-31 14:46:17 +0000, olcott said:

    On 7/31/2024 3:03 AM, Mikko wrote:
    On 2024-07-30 13:40:55 +0000, olcott said:

    On 7/30/2024 2:33 AM, Mikko wrote:
    On 2024-07-29 00:44:41 +0000, olcott said:

    The truth about every expression of language that can be known >>>>>>>>>>> to be true on the basis of its meaning expressed in language is >>>>>>>>>>> that a lack of connection simply means untrue.

    Does that really mean something? If the significance of the lack of >>>>>>>>>> connection is restricted to sentences where the connection exists >>>>>>>>>> then it seems that you are talking about nothing.


    https://plato.stanford.edu/Entries/analytic-synthetic/
    I had to redefine the analytic side of the analytic/synthetic >>>>>>>>> distinction because Quine convinced most everyone that this
    distinction does not exist.

    You cannot redefine side wihout redefining the other side and the >>>>>>>> distinction itself. Is your redefinition equivalent to the one >>>>>>>> at https://plato.stanford.edu/Entries/analytic-synthetic/ or did >>>>>>>> you find out that that distincition is not the one that exists? >>>>>>>
    Quine got totally confused by synonymity. He never understood
    that the term {Bachelor} was defined in terms of
    (~Married + Adult + Male).

    It is not a good idea to lie about other people.

    When reqding Quine, you should ask yourself why your presentation
    is much less convincing than Quine's.

    Try and show the details of how I am incorrect.

    What you said (quoted above) about Quine is insulting and unjustified, >>>> which alone is wrong.

    The bottom line here is that every objection that he could
    have possibly made is addressed by this augmentation to
    the definition of {analytic truth}

    *Original definition* of {Analytic truth}
    Every expression of (formal or natural language) that is
    true on the basis of its meaning...

    So what is wrong with Quines opinion that the truth of "A bachelor
    is not married" comes from the meaning of the words?


    If he said that then he would be saying that he has no
    objection to the {Analytic/Synthetic} distinction. He is
    famous for having an objection to this.

    What makes you thing he has no objection not involving batchelors to
    the analytinc/synthetic distinction?

    --
    Mikko

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)