• Re: How does the philosophical foundation of analytical truth defeat th

    From Richard Damon@21:1/5 to olcott on Tue Apr 16 21:16:36 2024
    On 4/16/24 10:11 AM, olcott wrote:
    There is expressions of language that are true on the basis of their
    semantic meaning (analytic) and there are expressions of language that
    are true on the basis of direct observation by the sense organs
    (empirical).

    Which you seem to fundamentally not understand. "Semantic Meaning" isn't
    just "The Meaning of the words", as that definition doesn't handle
    things like Pythagorean's Theorem.


    Analytic truth is essentially entirely comprised of relations between expressions of language.

    Right, within the bound of the system. This means that a statement can
    be Analytically True, based on a INFINITE sequence of relationships, but
    such a statement can not be PROVEN, as a PROOF, by its definition, is a
    FINITE set of steps from known true statements to the statement.

    For instance, a statement about no number existing that meets a given
    criteria might be True, if no such number exists, and this is
    established by the infinite testing of EVERY possible number (which are infinite in number), but unless some "shortcut" can be found, like an induction, such an infinite testing is not a proof of the statement.


    Kurt Gödel in his 1944 Russell's mathematical logic gave the following definition of the "theory of simple types" in a footnote:

    By the theory of simple types I mean the doctrine which says that the
    objects of thought (or, in another interpretation, the symbolic
    expressions) are divided into types, namely: individuals, properties of individuals, relations between individuals, properties of such
    relations, etc. (with a similar hierarchy for extensions), and that
    sentences of the form: " a has the property φ ", " b bears the relation
    R to c ", etc. are meaningless, if a, b, c, R, φ are not of types
    fitting together. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/History_of_type_theory#G%C3%B6del_1944

    When we try to define a truth predicate on the basis of simple type
    theory we have a set of expressions of language that are stipulated
    to be true that define the semantic meaning of each type these are
    like the axioms of a formal system or the Facts in Prolog.

    And, as Tarski showed, if such a predicate exists in a system with
    sufficient logical power, that system can be shown to be inconsistant.


    Then we have expressions of language that can be derived from
    expressions built from these defined types these are derived by
    applying truth preserving operations, like Prolog Rules.

    You like pointing out "Prolog" logic systems, but seem to fail to note
    that Prolog doesn't rise to the level of logic capability described in
    the theorems that you are discussing.

    This seems to be becaue you yourself don't understand logic more
    complicated than the simple logic that Prolog is capable of, so you
    think it actually is everything.


    https://liarparadox.org/Tarski_247_248.pdf https://liarparadox.org/Tarski_275_276.pdf

    In the same sort of way that ZFC screened out Russell's
    Paradox a correct Boolean Truth(L, x) predicate can screen out the epistemological antinomy basis of Tarki's Undefinability Theorem. Truth_Bearer(F, x) ≡ ((F ⊢ x) ∨ (F ⊢ ¬x))

    Which means that, as he shows the statement: (Where True(F,S) is the
    proposed Truth Predicate)

    Truth_Bearer(F, True(F, S)) isn't always true, as for some statements,
    True(F, S) can't generate a consistant truth value, and thus "True(F,S)"
    fails to meet the definition of a PREDICATE.


    https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Truth-bearer https://plato.stanford.edu/entries/truthmakers/


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