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  • Is [have] pronounced the same in [What do you have to =?UTF-8?B?c2F5P10

    From HenHanna@21:1/5 to All on Mon Sep 30 23:28:07 2024
    XPost: alt.usage.english, alt.english.usage

    Is [have] pronounced the same in [What do you have to say?] in the two meanings?
    -- meaning 1. (What must you say?)
    -- meaning 2. (Have you anything to say?)

    _______________________

    Yes, the word "have" is pronounced the same in both meanings.

    In both "What do you have to say?" (meaning 1: What must you say?) and
    "Have you anything to say?" (meaning 2: Have you anything to say?), the
    word "have" is pronounced with the same vowel sound and stress. There is
    no difference in pronunciation based on the intended meaning.

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    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From HenHanna@21:1/5 to HenHanna on Wed Oct 2 09:40:43 2024
    XPost: alt.usage.english, alt.english.usage

    On 9/30/2024 4:28 PM, HenHanna wrote:
    Is [have] pronounced the same in  [What do you have to say?] in the two meanings?
    -- meaning 1. (What must you say?)
    -- meaning 2. (Have you anything to say?)

    _______________________

    Yes, the word "have" is pronounced the same in both meanings.

    In both "What do you have to say?" (meaning 1: What must you say?) and
    "Have you anything to say?" (meaning 2: Have you anything to say?), the
    word "have" is pronounced with the same vowel sound and stress. There is
    no difference in pronunciation based on the intended meaning.


    The pronunciation of the word "have" varies depending on the
    context in which it is used.

    In the phrase "What do you have to say?", the pronunciation differs
    based on its implied meaning.

    When "have" indicates obligation, as in "What must you say?", it is
    pronounced with a voiceless /f/ sound, sounding like /hæf/.

    Conversely, when "have" denotes possession, as in "Have you anything to
    say?", it is pronounced as /hæv/.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Ruud Harmsen@21:1/5 to All on Fri Oct 4 16:02:23 2024
    XPost: alt.usage.english, alt.english.usage

    Wed, 2 Oct 2024 09:40:43 -0700: HenHanna <[email protected]>
    scribeva:

    On 9/30/2024 4:28 PM, HenHanna wrote:
    Is [have] pronounced the same in  [What do you have to say?] in the two
    meanings?
    -- meaning 1. (What must you say?)
    -- meaning 2. (Have you anything to say?)

    _______________________

    Yes, the word "have" is pronounced the same in both meanings.

    In both "What do you have to say?" (meaning 1: What must you say?) and
    "Have you anything to say?" (meaning 2: Have you anything to say?), the
    word "have" is pronounced with the same vowel sound and stress. There is
    no difference in pronunciation based on the intended meaning.


    The pronunciation of the word "have" varies depending on the
    context in which it is used.

    In the phrase "What do you have to say?", the pronunciation differs
    based on its implied meaning.

    When "have" indicates obligation, as in "What must you say?", it is >pronounced with a voiceless /f/ sound, sounding like /hæf/.

    Conversely, when "have" denotes possession, as in "Have you anything to >say?", it is pronounced as /hæv/.

    Wouldn’t that more likely be a question of assimilation? In <have to>,
    /v/ is followed by /t/, so if assimilation takes place, that can
    result in [ft].

    In <have you>, /v/ is followed by /j/, both voiced, so assimilation to
    anything voiceless is very unlikely.

    English has less assimilation than many other languages. E.g. in
    English <website>, the <b> does not turn into [p], but remains [b],
    even though the <s> is /s/ and [s]. But I think that in <have to>,
    assimilation does occur.

    (Legend:
    <written text>
    /phonemes/
    [phones]
    ).

    Cf. my shortish article https://rudhar.com/lingtics/sheleftu.htm .
    --
    Ruud Harmsen, https://rudhar.com

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