• Limits to POTUS immunity (if any)

    From Jethro_uk@21:1/5 to All on Wed Jan 29 08:31:54 2025
    With executive orders flying thick and fast, only being impeded by
    executive actions, and with at least one (firing of federal officials
    without 30 day notice) being illegal, I find myself wondering how far the
    fresh doctrine of presidential immunity goes ?

    Firing the officials was "an official act" so surely a poster child for
    the POTUS immunity from breaking the law whilst undertaking official
    acts ?

    Presumably it would be illegal to dismantle SCOTUS, but if it's an
    official act ?

    Not being steeped in the affairs of a former colony :) I may have
    misconstrued the nature of presidential immunity. However it seems to me
    that all roads lead to POTUS. If the legislature won't pass a bill, POTUS
    just issues an EO and if doesn't matter if it's lawful or not.

    On a slightly related note, can SCOTUS be forced to hear a case ? Or
    refuse to hear a case ?

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  • From Rick@21:1/5 to All on Wed Jan 29 10:18:58 2025
    On 1/29/2025 11:31 AM, Jethro_uk wrote:
    With executive orders flying thick and fast, only being impeded by
    executive actions, and with at least one (firing of federal officials
    without 30 day notice) being illegal, I find myself wondering how far the fresh doctrine of presidential immunity goes ?

    Firing the officials was "an official act" so surely a poster child for
    the POTUS immunity from breaking the law whilst undertaking official
    acts ?


    The president would be immune from personally being prosecuted for
    official acts, such as passing an Executive Order. But a specific EO
    could still be reversed by the courts or found unconstitutional.

    Presumably it would be illegal to dismantle SCOTUS, but if it's an
    official act ?


    SCOTUS is created by the Constitution so the president would have no
    authority to dismantle it and no one would go along with that if he tried.

    Not being steeped in the affairs of a former colony :) I may have misconstrued the nature of presidential immunity. However it seems to me
    that all roads lead to POTUS. If the legislature won't pass a bill, POTUS just issues an EO and if doesn't matter if it's lawful or not.


    Again, any EO issued by the president can be reversed by the courts -
    it's just that he can't be personally prosecuted for an official act.
    But for a serious enough offense he can certainly be impeached and
    removed form office.

    On a slightly related note, can SCOTUS be forced to hear a case ? Or
    refuse to hear a case ?


    SCOTUS has absolute authority to accept or reject cases as it sees fit.
    There is a constitutional requirement that the Chief Justice oversee impeachment trials, but that's more ceremonial than actually hearing the
    case.

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  • From Stan Brown@21:1/5 to All on Wed Jan 29 10:23:25 2025
    On Wed, 29 Jan 2025 08:31:54 -0800 (PST), Jethro_uk
    wrote:

    With executive orders flying thick and fast, only being impeded by
    executive actions, and with at least one (firing of federal officials
    without 30 day notice) being illegal, I find myself wondering how far the fresh doctrine of presidential immunity goes ?

    There are two issues here, and it's important to
    untangle them. One is whether an illegal act of the
    president must be followed by the executive branch, and
    the other is whether the president can be held
    accountable for an illegal but official act.

    The Supreme Court has not quite said that the president
    can never be held accountable for an illegal act, but t
    has effectively said that he cannot, with minor
    restrictions that don't have any practical effect as
    far as I can see.

    Legally he's still subject to impeachment, and removal
    from office on conviction. But as we've already
    discussed, the Republicans have made it abundantly
    clear that almost none of their Senators would vote to
    convict, even if the House does pass a bill of
    impeachment (of which the chance is virtually nil).

    But when we turn to whether the president's extra-legal
    acts must be followed by the rest of the executive
    branch, as far as I know the standard historical rule
    is still in effect, that when the president and the law
    disagree the executive branch must follow the law. So,
    for example, his executive order repealing Lyndon
    Johnson's anti-discrimination rule in Federal
    employment has no effect, since after Johnson's time
    those protections were enshrined in legislation, and a
    president cannot overrule a law unless the law itself
    gives him that authority, which the majority of laws do
    not. His attempt to stop all federal aid to cities and
    states has already been challenged on that basis.

    Firing the officials was "an official act" so surely a poster child for
    the POTUS immunity from breaking the law whilst undertaking official
    acts ?

    Again, two issues: did the firing have any legal
    effect, and if it did not, can the president be held
    accountable? To the second question the answer is
    (alas!) no; to the first I do not think courts have
    ruled, but I expect that is coming.

    Presumably it would be illegal to dismantle SCOTUS, but if it's an
    official act ?

    He doesn't need to, because they already give him
    whatever he wants.

    Not being steeped in the affairs of a former colony :) I may have misconstrued the nature of presidential immunity. However it seems to me
    that all roads lead to POTUS. If the legislature won't pass a bill, POTUS just issues an EO and if doesn't matter if it's lawful or not.

    Again, two issues. If there isn't specific legal
    authority for a particular Executive Order, then that
    order is void, th officials of he executive branch are
    bound by their oath to he Constitution to disregard it,
    and the courts are bound by _their_ oath to the
    Constitution to rule that way when someone brings a
    case.

    On a slightly related note, can SCOTUS be forced to hear a case ? Or
    refuse to hear a case ?

    Various bits of legislation since 1789 have whittled
    down the categories of cases that the Supreme Court
    must take to almost none. "The Constitution limits
    original jurisdiction cases" [which only the Supreme
    Court can hear] "to those involving disputes between
    the states or disputes arising among ambassadors and
    other high-ranking ministers." I'm not sure if they can
    refuse to hear a case in those categories, but if they
    do then no other court can hear it.

    https://www.uscourts.gov/about-federal- courts/educational-resources/about-educational- outreach/activity-resources/supreme-court-procedures


    --
    Stan Brown, Tehachapi, California, USA
    https://BrownMath.com/
    Shikata ga nai...

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  • From Mike Anderson@21:1/5 to Stan Brown on Tue Apr 29 06:30:45 2025
    On 1/29/2025 1:23 PM, Stan Brown wrote:
    Again, two issues. If there isn't specific legal
    authority for a particular Executive Order, then that
    order is void, th officials of he executive branch are
    bound by their oath to he Constitution to disregard it,
    and the courts are bound by _their_ oath to the
    Constitution to rule that way when someone brings a
    case.

    With any given executive order, there's three (main) possibilities:

    Congress passes a law saying X is illegal and the EO says "X is legal."
    (or visa-versa.)

    Congress: Shooting someone is illegal.
    Executive order: It is perfectly legal to shoot someone.
    Outcome: The EO is void and shooting someone still lands you in jail.

    Congress: We're passing a law saying the prez can decide if John can
    shoot Mary.
    EO: This orders John to shoot Mary.
    Outcome: John is hailed as a hero after pulling the trigger.

    Congress: <crickets> (i.e. doesn't say anything and doesn't pass a law
    in any respect on the matter, either for or against.)
    EO: The Gulf will now be called The Gulf of Trump.Calling it anything
    else will result in 30 days in jail.
    Outcome: John called it The Gulf of Dumbo.

    Jail: Yes or no?

    I.e. is it a case of "Unless we, the congress, or the constitution says explicitly that you can, you can't" or is it more "you can do anything
    you want unless we or the constitution specifically say 'no'"?

    It seems to me that regular laws are pretty much in the form of "you can
    not do X" and rarely in the form of "you are allowed to do X" (generally
    the only time they say "you are allowed to do X" is when there;s a law
    saying "you can't do Y" and the "you are allowed to do X" is carving out
    an exception ("No parking....except on Sundays." "No driving in the HOV lane...unless you have at least two in the vehicle." Etc.)

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  • From Rick@21:1/5 to Mike Anderson on Tue Apr 29 07:36:24 2025
    On 4/29/2025 9:30 AM, Mike Anderson wrote:
    On 1/29/2025 1:23 PM, Stan Brown wrote:
    Again, two issues. If there isn't specific legal
    authority for a particular Executive Order, then that
    order is void, th officials of he executive branch are
    bound by their oath to he Constitution to disregard it,
    and the courts are bound by _their_ oath to the
    Constitution to rule that way when someone brings a
    case.

    With any given executive order, there's three (main) possibilities:

    Congress passes a law saying X is illegal and the EO says "X is legal."
    (or visa-versa.)

    Congress: Shooting someone is illegal.
    Executive order: It is perfectly legal to shoot someone.
    Outcome: The EO is void and shooting someone still lands you in jail.

    Congress: We're passing a law saying the prez can decide if John can
    shoot Mary.
    EO: This orders John to shoot Mary.
    Outcome: John is hailed as a hero after pulling the trigger.

    Congress: <crickets> (i.e. doesn't say anything and doesn't pass a law
    in any respect on the matter, either for or against.)
    EO: The Gulf will now be called The Gulf of Trump.Calling it anything
    else will result in 30 days in jail.
    Outcome: John called it The Gulf of Dumbo.

    Jail: Yes or no?

    I.e. is it a case of "Unless we, the congress, or the constitution says explicitly that you can, you can't" or is it more "you can do anything
    you want unless we or the constitution specifically say 'no'"?

    It seems to me that regular laws are pretty much in the form of "you can
    not do X" and rarely in the form of "you are allowed to do X" (generally
    the only time they say "you are allowed to do X" is when there;s a law
    saying "you can't do Y" and the "you are allowed to do X" is carving out
    an exception ("No parking....except on Sundays." "No driving in the HOV lane...unless you have at least two in the vehicle." Etc.)


    The Constitution does specifically allow for free speech, so the 30-day
    jail sentence for calling it the Gulf of Dumbo would likely be rejected
    by the courts.

    And the Bill of Rights is mostly a list of things you CAN do (free
    speech, assembly, owning guns, etc.).

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  • From Barry Gold@21:1/5 to Mike Anderson on Tue Apr 29 13:33:25 2025
    On 4/29/2025 6:30 AM, Mike Anderson wrote:
    On 1/29/2025 1:23 PM, Stan Brown wrote:
    Again, two issues. If there isn't specific legal
    authority for a particular Executive Order, then that
    order is void, th officials of he executive branch are
    bound by their oath to he Constitution to disregard it,
    and the courts are bound by _their_ oath to the
    Constitution to rule that way when someone brings a
    case.

    With any given executive order, there's three (main) possibilities:

    Congress passes a law saying X is illegal and the EO says "X is legal."
    (or visa-versa.)

    Congress: Shooting someone is illegal.
    Executive order: It is perfectly legal to shoot someone.
    Outcome: The EO is void and shooting someone still lands you in jail.

    Congress: We're passing a law saying the prez can decide if John can
    shoot Mary.
    EO: This orders John to shoot Mary.
    Outcome: John is hailed as a hero after pulling the trigger.

    Congress: <crickets> (i.e. doesn't say anything and doesn't pass a law
    in any respect on the matter, either for or against.)
    EO: The Gulf will now be called The Gulf of Trump.Calling it anything
    else will result in 30 days in jail.
    Outcome: John called it The Gulf of Dumbo.

    Jail: Yes or no?

    I.e. is it a case of "Unless we, the congress, or the constitution says explicitly that you can, you can't" or is it more "you can do anything
    you want unless we or the constitution specifically say 'no'"?

    It seems to me that regular laws are pretty much in the form of "you can
    not do X" and rarely in the form of "you are allowed to do X" (generally
    the only time they say "you are allowed to do X" is when there;s a law
    saying "you can't do Y" and the "you are allowed to do X" is carving out
    an exception ("No parking....except on Sundays." "No driving in the HOV lane...unless you have at least two in the vehicle." Etc.)

    I would guess that the majority of laws passed by Congress were of the
    form, "Department X shall do Y" or "you must pay taxes according to to
    this formula." There are also quite a few of the form "We want X to
    happen. Here are some guidelines, but within those guidelines the
    President (or those appointed by the President for that purpose) shall
    decide how that goal is to be accomploished."

    Those latter are the reason for all those Executive Orders. Congress has
    told the Executive Branch that they want something to happen and set
    some guidelines. Within those guidelines, the President or those
    appointed by him can make rules, spend money (within the limits set by Congress), etc. This is the basis for all those executive orders.
    r


    --
    I do so have a memory. It's backed up on DVD... somewhere...

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  • From Stan Brown@21:1/5 to Rick on Wed Apr 30 09:52:24 2025
    On Tue, 29 Apr 2025 07:36:24 -0700 (PDT), Rick wrote:
    On 4/29/2025 9:30 AM, Mike Anderson wrote:
    [quoted text muted]
    saying "you can't do Y" and the "you are allowed to do X" is carving out
    an exception ("No parking....except on Sundays." "No driving in the HOV lane...unless you have at least two in the vehicle." Etc.)


    The Constitution does specifically allow for free speech, so the 30-day
    jail sentence for calling it the Gulf of Dumbo would likely be rejected
    by the courts.

    Yes the White House punished the Associated Press for continuing with
    the traditional name, Gulf of Mexico. The Federal District Court for
    DC ruled that the White House had acted in violation of the First
    Amendment, and the Trump administration kept the AP out anyway.

    And the Bill of Rights is mostly a list of things you CAN do (free
    speech, assembly, owning guns, etc.).

    I don't see it that way. Look at how it is written in negative terms:
    "Congress shall make no law...", "No person shall be compelled to
    ..." and so forth.

    The Bill of Rights is primarily a list of things that the government
    _cannot_ do. In the 18th and 19th centuries, the restrictions fell
    only on the Federal government. (Virginia had an established church
    for some years after the passage of the Bill of Rights, for
    instance.) In the 20th century, the Supreme Court used the 14th
    Amendment's promise of due process to extend the restrictions on the
    Federal government, one by one, to also restrict the states.

    --
    Stan Brown, Tehachapi, California, USA https://BrownMath.com/
    Shikata ga nai...

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  • From Stan Brown@21:1/5 to Mike Anderson on Wed Apr 30 09:52:03 2025
    On Tue, 29 Apr 2025 06:30:45 -0700 (PDT), Mike Anderson wrote:
    I.e. is it a case of "Unless we, the congress, or the constitution says explicitly that you can, you can't"

    That is exactly it. The constitution delegates certain powers to the
    Federal government, but all other powers remain with the states. (See
    Amendment X.) Granted, there is considerable wiggle room under the
    "necessary and proper" clause at the end of Article I section 8.

    If the Constitution does not assign a power to Congress, Congress
    does not have that power. If the Constitution doesn't assign a power
    to an officer, that officer does not have the power. The Congress can
    however assign some powers of Congress to an executive officer under
    the "necessary and proper" clause.

    The problem is that there's no quick way, in the present environment
    where a majority of each house and the entirety of the Cabinet are
    spineless Trump-toadies, to act quickly when the President arrogates
    to himself powers that he does not legally have. He should by rights
    be speedily impeached and convicted, or at the least sidelined by the
    Amendment XXV process based o his dementia and the great harm he is
    doing to the economy as well as to democracy itself, but the people
    who would have to take those actions are his minions, so it won't
    happen.

    --
    Stan Brown, Tehachapi, California, USA https://BrownMath.com/
    Shikata ga nai...

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  • From Stan Brown@21:1/5 to Barry Gold on Wed Apr 30 09:52:39 2025
    On Tue, 29 Apr 2025 13:33:25 -0700 (PDT), Barry Gold wrote:
    Those latter are the reason for all those Executive Orders. Congress has
    told the Executive Branch that they want something to happen and set
    some guidelines. Within those guidelines, the President or those
    appointed by him can make rules, spend money (within the limits set by Congress), etc. This is the basis for all those executive orders.

    Yes, but ...

    Many of those orders are blatantly or at least arguably
    unconstitutional. Many more are in _violation_ of laws passed by
    Contress, not issued in fulfillment of legislation.

    In the aftermath of Nixon, for instance, the Impoundment Control Act
    of 1974
    https://www.gao.gov/legal/appropriations-law/impoundment-control-act
    laid down that the President could not hold back ("impound" or
    "sequester") funds appropriated by Congress, as Nixon had done,
    unless the appropriation itself granted that power, which few to none
    of current appropriations do.

    --
    Stan Brown, Tehachapi, California, USA https://BrownMath.com/
    Shikata ga nai...

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  • From Barry Gold@21:1/5 to Stan Brown on Wed Apr 30 11:51:08 2025
    On 4/30/2025 9:52 AM, Stan Brown wrote:
    Yes, but ...

    Many of those orders are blatantly or at least arguably
    unconstitutional. Many more are in_violation_ of laws passed by
    Contress, not issued in fulfillment of legislation.

    In the aftermath of Nixon, for instance, the Impoundment Control Act
    of 1974
    https://www.gao.gov/legal/appropriations-law/impoundment-control-act
    laid down that the President could not hold back ("impound" or
    "sequester") funds appropriated by Congress, as Nixon had done,
    unless the appropriation itself granted that power, which few to none
    of current appropriations do.

    I agree 100%. But this has nothing to do the question of what "a law" is
    (as passed by COngress).
    --
    I do so have a memory. It's backed up on DVD... somewhere...

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  • From Stan Brown@21:1/5 to Barry Gold on Wed Apr 30 22:48:41 2025
    On Wed, 30 Apr 2025 11:51:08 -0700 (PDT), Barry Gold wrote:
    On 4/30/2025 9:52 AM, Stan Brown wrote:
    Yes, but ...

    Many of those orders are blatantly or at least arguably
    unconstitutional. Many more are in_violation_ of laws passed by Con[g]ress, not issued in fulfillment of legislation.

    In the aftermath of Nixon, for instance, the Impoundment Control Act
    of 1974
    https://www.gao.gov/legal/appropriations-law/impoundment-control-act
    laid down that the President could not hold back ("impound" or
    "sequester") funds appropriated by Congress, as Nixon had done,
    unless the appropriation itself granted that power, which few to none
    of current appropriations do.

    I agree 100%. But this has nothing to do the question of what "a law" is
    (as passed by COngress).

    I'm sorry, I don't understand your point. The Impoundmemnt Control
    Act _is_ a law, passed by Congress, and Trump is in violation of it.
    Multiple violations, as a matter of fact.

    --
    Stan Brown, Tehachapi, California, USA https://BrownMath.com/
    Shikata ga nai...

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  • From Rick@21:1/5 to Stan Brown on Thu May 1 06:54:35 2025
    On 4/30/2025 12:52 PM, Stan Brown wrote:
    On Tue, 29 Apr 2025 06:30:45 -0700 (PDT), Mike Anderson wrote:
    I.e. is it a case of "Unless we, the congress, or the constitution says
    explicitly that you can, you can't"

    That is exactly it. The constitution delegates certain powers to the
    Federal government, but all other powers remain with the states. (See Amendment X.) Granted, there is considerable wiggle room under the
    "necessary and proper" clause at the end of Article I section 8.

    If the Constitution does not assign a power to Congress, Congress
    does not have that power. If the Constitution doesn't assign a power
    to an officer, that officer does not have the power. The Congress can
    however assign some powers of Congress to an executive officer under
    the "necessary and proper" clause.

    The problem is that there's no quick way, in the present environment
    where a majority of each house and the entirety of the Cabinet are
    spineless Trump-toadies, to act quickly when the President arrogates
    to himself powers that he does not legally have. He should by rights
    be speedily impeached and convicted, or at the least sidelined by the Amendment XXV process based o his dementia and the great harm he is
    doing to the economy as well as to democracy itself, but the people
    who would have to take those actions are his minions, so it won't
    happen.

    You can call them minions, but they were legally elected in a presumably
    fair election (as was Trump), so if they agree with what Trump is
    doing, that is just an outgrowth of the election process.

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  • From Mike Anderson@21:1/5 to Rick on Tue Jun 3 13:00:17 2025
    On 4/29/2025 10:36 AM, Rick wrote:
    On 4/29/2025 9:30 AM, Mike Anderson wrote:
    On 1/29/2025 1:23 PM, Stan Brown wrote:
    Again, two issues. If there isn't specific legal
    authority for a particular Executive Order, then that
    order is void, th officials of he executive branch are
    bound by their oath to he Constitution to disregard it,
    and the courts are bound by _their_ oath to the
    Constitution to rule that way when someone brings a
    case.

    With any given executive order, there's three (main) possibilities:

    Congress passes a law saying X is illegal and the EO says "X is
    legal." (or visa-versa.)

    Congress: Shooting someone is illegal.
    Executive order: It is perfectly legal to shoot someone.
    Outcome: The EO is void and shooting someone still lands you in jail.

    Congress: We're passing a law saying the prez can decide if John can
    shoot Mary.
    EO: This orders John to shoot Mary.
    Outcome: John is hailed as a hero after pulling the trigger.

    Congress: <crickets> (i.e. doesn't say anything and doesn't pass a law
    in any respect on the matter, either for or against.)
    EO: The Gulf will now be called The Gulf of Trump.Calling it anything
    else will result in 30 days in jail.
    Outcome: John called it The Gulf of Dumbo.

    Jail: Yes or no?

    I.e. is it a case of "Unless we, the congress, or the constitution
    says explicitly that you can, you can't" or is it more "you can do
    anything you want unless we or the constitution specifically say 'no'"?

    It seems to me that regular laws are pretty much in the form of "you
    can not do X" and rarely in the form of "you are allowed to do
    X" (generally the only time they say "you are allowed to do X" is when
    there;s a law saying "you can't do Y" and the "you are allowed to do
    X" is carving out an exception ("No parking....except on Sundays." "No
    driving in the HOV lane...unless you have at least two in the
    vehicle." Etc.)


    The Constitution does specifically allow for free speech, so the 30-day
    jail sentence for calling it the Gulf of Dumbo would likely be rejected
    by the courts.

    And the Bill of Rights is mostly a list of things you CAN do (free
    speech, assembly, owning guns, etc.).


    OK, so the Gulf of Dumbo wasn't a good choice (I was just trying ti find something really stupid to jail someone over and wasn't thinking about
    the 1st Amendment applications.) Lets replace it with:

    EO: Refusing to allow the President to play through on the golf course
    will result in 30 days in jail.

    Jail or no jail?

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  • From Mike Anderson@21:1/5 to Stan Brown on Tue Jun 3 13:03:28 2025
    On 4/30/2025 12:52 PM, Stan Brown wrote:
    On Tue, 29 Apr 2025 06:30:45 -0700 (PDT), Mike Anderson wrote:
    I.e. is it a case of "Unless we, the congress, or the constitution says
    explicitly that you can, you can't"

    That is exactly it. The constitution delegates certain powers to the
    Federal government, but all other powers remain with the states. (See Amendment X.) Granted, there is considerable wiggle room under the
    "necessary and proper" clause at the end of Article I section 8.

    If the Constitution does not assign a power to Congress, Congress
    does not have that power. If the Constitution doesn't assign a power
    to an officer, that officer does not have the power. The Congress can
    however assign some powers of Congress to an executive officer under
    the "necessary and proper" clause.

    The problem is that there's no quick way, in the present environment
    where a majority of each house and the entirety of the Cabinet are
    spineless Trump-toadies, to act quickly when the President arrogates
    to himself powers that he does not legally have. He should by rights
    be speedily impeached and convicted, or at the least sidelined by the Amendment XXV process based o his dementia and the great harm he is
    doing to the economy as well as to democracy itself, but the people
    who would have to take those actions are his minions, so it won't
    happen.


    I realize there's some things that Congress can't do, specifically,
    because it's a right of the state (I believe the 21 age limit for
    drinking and the 55-mph max speed are two cases of these and Congress,
    instead of saying "no driving over 55" actually said "if a state allows
    driving over 55, we'll simply not give them funding for roads" or
    something such.)

    However, this wasn't abound Congress vs the states but between Congress
    vs POTUS. The question was about powers that Congress DOES have but
    might not actually exercise.

    Congress has full control over any laws dealing with interstate
    commerce. So Congress can pass a law saying, specifically, "sending
    chocolates through the US Mail is illegal" They can also add on to it
    that it's legal between Feb 1st and Feb 14th, etc.

    So the possibilities are:

    Congress passes a law stating, specifically and explicitly, that
    "mailing chocolates is perfectly legal. Feel free to do so any time you
    want." But an EO says "it's illegal." (and yes, I realize most laws are
    in the form of "you can't do X" and rarely "yes, you can do X.")

    Congress passes "sending chocolates through the US Mail is illegal" with
    no exemptions. An EO says "it's perfectly legal to mail chocolates."
    (This EO might not be valid but then, I believe, the Justice Department
    can be told 'just ignore enforcing it', thus having the same effect.)

    Congress passes "sending chocolates through the US Mail is illegal
    except the first two weeks of Feb." An EO says "it's illegal even in
    those two weeks."

    Congress passes no law of any kind specifically mentioning chocolates.
    But an EO says "it's illegal."

    The last one would be like the Gulf of Dumbo but without the
    1st-ammentment issue.

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  • From Rick@21:1/5 to Mike Anderson on Tue Jun 3 14:09:29 2025
    On 6/3/2025 4:03 PM, Mike Anderson wrote:
    On 4/30/2025 12:52 PM, Stan Brown wrote:
    On Tue, 29 Apr 2025 06:30:45 -0700 (PDT), Mike Anderson wrote:
    I.e. is it a case of "Unless we, the congress, or the constitution says
    explicitly that you can, you can't"

    That is exactly it. The constitution delegates certain powers to the
    Federal government, but all other powers remain with the states. (See
    Amendment X.) Granted, there is considerable wiggle room under the
    "necessary and proper" clause at the end of Article I section 8.

    If the Constitution does not assign a power to Congress, Congress
    does not have that power. If the Constitution doesn't assign a power
    to an officer, that officer does not have the power. The Congress can
    however assign some powers of Congress to an executive officer under
    the "necessary and proper" clause.

    The problem is that there's no quick way, in the present environment
    where a majority of each house and the entirety of the Cabinet are
    spineless Trump-toadies, to act quickly when the President arrogates
    to himself powers that he does not legally have. He should by rights
    be speedily impeached and convicted, or at the least sidelined by the
    Amendment XXV process based o his dementia and the great harm he is
    doing to the economy as well as to democracy itself, but the people
    who would have to take those actions are his minions, so it won't
    happen.


    I realize there's some things that Congress can't do, specifically,
    because it's a right of the state (I believe the 21 age limit for
    drinking and the 55-mph max speed are two cases of these and Congress, instead of saying "no driving over 55" actually said "if a state allows driving over 55, we'll simply not give them funding for roads" or
    something such.)

    However, this wasn't abound Congress vs the states but between Congress
    vs POTUS. The question was about powers that Congress DOES have but
    might not actually exercise.

    Congress has full control over any laws dealing with interstate
    commerce. So Congress can pass a law saying, specifically, "sending chocolates through the US Mail is illegal" They can also add on to it
    that it's legal between Feb 1st and Feb 14th, etc.

    So the possibilities are:

    Congress passes a law stating, specifically and explicitly, that
    "mailing chocolates is perfectly legal. Feel free to do so any time you want." But an EO says "it's illegal." (and yes, I realize most laws are
    in the form of "you can't do X" and rarely "yes, you can do X.")

    Congress passes "sending chocolates through the US Mail is illegal" with
    no exemptions. An EO says "it's perfectly legal to mail chocolates."
    (This EO might not be valid but then, I believe, the Justice Department
    can be told 'just ignore enforcing it', thus having the same effect.)

    Congress passes "sending chocolates through the US Mail is illegal
    except the first two weeks of Feb." An EO says "it's illegal even in
    those two weeks."

    Congress passes no law of any kind specifically mentioning chocolates.
    But an EO says "it's illegal."

    The last one would be like the Gulf of Dumbo but without the
    1st-ammentment issue.


    My guess is that if Congress chooses to pass a law prohibiting the
    mailing of certain items through the US mail, even chocolates, that's
    probably legit under the Commerce clause. In fact, there probably are
    such laws in place right now, though likely not for chocolates.
    Similarly, in the absence of such a law regarding chocolates, I would
    think the President could probably sign an EO prohibiting chocolates
    from going through the US Mail, and it would be legal.

    The real question is can a president sigh a law prohibiting mailing
    chocolates when the Congress has previously passed a law specifically
    allowing the mailing of chocolates. I think in that case, the
    president's EO COULD be overturned. I'm assuming, of course, that the
    law passed by Congress allowing the mailing of chocolates didn't include
    some exception for national security or emergency.

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  • From Rick@21:1/5 to Mike Anderson on Tue Jun 3 14:08:45 2025
    On 6/3/2025 4:00 PM, Mike Anderson wrote:
    On 4/29/2025 10:36 AM, Rick wrote:
    On 4/29/2025 9:30 AM, Mike Anderson wrote:
    On 1/29/2025 1:23 PM, Stan Brown wrote:
    Again, two issues. If there isn't specific legal
    authority for a particular Executive Order, then that
    order is void, th officials of he executive branch are
    bound by their oath to he Constitution to disregard it,
    and the courts are bound by _their_ oath to the
    Constitution to rule that way when someone brings a
    case.

    With any given executive order, there's three (main) possibilities:

    Congress passes a law saying X is illegal and the EO says "X is
    legal." (or visa-versa.)

    Congress: Shooting someone is illegal.
    Executive order: It is perfectly legal to shoot someone.
    Outcome: The EO is void and shooting someone still lands you in jail.

    Congress: We're passing a law saying the prez can decide if John can
    shoot Mary.
    EO: This orders John to shoot Mary.
    Outcome: John is hailed as a hero after pulling the trigger.

    Congress: <crickets> (i.e. doesn't say anything and doesn't pass a
    law in any respect on the matter, either for or against.)
    EO: The Gulf will now be called The Gulf of Trump.Calling it anything
    else will result in 30 days in jail.
    Outcome: John called it The Gulf of Dumbo.

    Jail: Yes or no?

    I.e. is it a case of "Unless we, the congress, or the constitution
    says explicitly that you can, you can't" or is it more "you can do
    anything you want unless we or the constitution specifically say 'no'"?

    It seems to me that regular laws are pretty much in the form of "you
    can not do X" and rarely in the form of "you are allowed to do X"
    (generally the only time they say "you are allowed to do X" is when
    there;s a law saying "you can't do Y" and the "you are allowed to do
    X" is carving out an exception ("No parking....except on Sundays."
    "No driving in the HOV lane...unless you have at least two in the
    vehicle." Etc.)


    The Constitution does specifically allow for free speech, so the
    30-day jail sentence for calling it the Gulf of Dumbo would likely be
    rejected by the courts.

    And the Bill of Rights is mostly a list of things you CAN do (free
    speech, assembly, owning guns, etc.).


    OK, so the Gulf of Dumbo wasn't a good choice (I was just trying ti find something really stupid to jail someone over and wasn't thinking about
    the 1st Amendment applications.) Lets replace it with:

    EO: Refusing to allow the President to play through on the golf course
    will result in 30 days in jail.

    Jail or no jail?


    I'm not sure this is a great example either since laws protecting the
    security and free movement of the president are probably valid.
    Certainly if the president is traveling in a motorcade, it has to be
    illegal to block his car or impede his movement. This might be
    considered a variant on that. The president is certainly entitled to
    play gulf or pursue exercise activities, and it's probably not
    unreasonable for there to be laws protecting his safety and freedom of
    movement in such situations.

    But putting all that aside and just considering a law treating the
    president differently from other citizens without regard to the special
    safety and security needs of the chief executive, I'd guess such a law
    might violate the 14th Amendment equal protection clause.

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  • From Jethro_uk@21:1/5 to Mike Anderson on Wed Jun 4 07:47:57 2025
    On Tue, 03 Jun 2025 13:00:17 -0700, Mike Anderson wrote:

    On 4/29/2025 10:36 AM, Rick wrote:
    [quoted text muted]

    OK, so the Gulf of Dumbo wasn't a good choice (I was just trying ti find something really stupid to jail someone over and wasn't thinking about
    the 1st Amendment applications.) Lets replace it with:

    But the 1st amendment is already accepted as not absolute.

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