We saw in the news today that President Biden wants legislation to
impose an 18-year term limit on each Justice.
Leaving aside the fact that the Republican majority in the House
would never pass that bill, how is it even Constitutional? Article
III section 1 says "The Judges, both of the supreme and inferior
Courts, shall hold their Offices during good Behaviour", which has
always been interpreted as "for life".
.....
The President said he had been consulting with Constitutional
scholars, so they must have found a loophole. What is it?
We saw in the news today that President Biden wants legislation to
impose an 18-year term limit on each Justice.
Leaving aside the fact that the Republican majority in the House
would never pass that bill, how is it even Constitutional? Article
III section 1 says "The Judges, both of the supreme and inferior
Courts, shall hold their Offices during good Behaviour", which has
always been interpreted as "for life".
The only grant to Congress of authority over the Court that I could
find is this from Article III section 2: "In all Cases affecting
Ambassadors, other public Ministers and Consuls, and those in which a
State shall be Party, the supreme Court shall have original
Jurisdiction. In all the other Cases before mentioned, the supreme
Court shall have appellate Jurisdiction, both as to Law and Fact,
with such Exceptions, and under such Regulations as the Congress
shall make." But I think that pretty clearly limits the "Exceptions"
to which kinds of cases can be taken, and the "Regulations" to those
that affect the Court as a whole, not individual Justices.
The President said he had been consulting with Constitutional
scholars, so they must have found a loophole. What is it?
We saw in the news today that President Biden wants legislation to
impose an 18-year term limit on each Justice.
Leaving aside the fact that the Republican majority in the House
would never pass that bill, how is it even Constitutional? Article
III section 1 says "The Judges, both of the supreme and inferior
Courts, shall hold their Offices during good Behaviour", which has
always been interpreted as "for life".
The only grant to Congress of authority over the Court that I could
find is this from Article III section 2: "In all Cases affecting
Ambassadors, other public Ministers and Consuls, and those in which a
State shall be Party, the supreme Court shall have original
Jurisdiction. In all the other Cases before mentioned, the supreme
Court shall have appellate Jurisdiction, both as to Law and Fact,
with such Exceptions, and under such Regulations as the Congress
shall make." But I think that pretty clearly limits the "Exceptions"
to which kinds of cases can be taken, and the "Regulations" to those
that affect the Court as a whole, not individual Justices.
The President said he had been consulting with Constitutional
scholars, so they must have found a loophole. What is it?
I think any effort to impose term limits on the Court will require a constitutional amendment, just as was required to limit presidential
terms. I don't believe we will see that in our lifetime.
The only grant to Congress of authority over the Court that I could
find is this from Article III section 2: "In all Cases affecting
Ambassadors, other public Ministers and Consuls, and those in which a
State shall be Party, the supreme Court shall have original
Jurisdiction. In all the other Cases before mentioned, the supreme
Court shall have appellate Jurisdiction, both as to Law and Fact,
with such Exceptions, and under such Regulations as the Congress
shall make." But I think that pretty clearly limits the "Exceptions"
to which kinds of cases can be taken, and the "Regulations" to those
that affect the Court as a whole, not individual Justices.
I don't believe it is constitutional for reasons others have articulated.
But it does lead to an interesting question. If the law is passed, it will almost certainly be appealed and probably find its way to the Supreme Court. Has the Court ever before had to rule on a law involving the Supreme Court?
Rick wrote:
I don't believe it is constitutional for reasons others have
articulated. But it does lead to an interesting question. If the law
is passed, it will almost certainly be appealed and probably find its
way to the Supreme Court. Has the Court ever before had to rule on a
law involving the Supreme Court?
Marbury v. Madison, 5 U.S. (1 Cranch) 137 (1803). It wasn't the only
time, but I think it was the first. The particular law in question
was the Judiciary Act of 1789, the first year of the Constitution's operation.
<https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Marbury_v._Madison>
"Decided in 1803, Marbury is regarded as the single most important
decision in American constitutional law. It established that the U.S. Constitution is actual law, not just a statement of political
principles and ideals."
We saw in the news today that President Biden wants legislation to
impose an 18-year term limit on each Justice.
Leaving aside the fact that the Republican majority in the House
would never pass that bill, how is it even Constitutional?
I dunno - the US managed to ban and unban alcohol pretty quickly.
If Congress wanted, it could pass a law that says that a new justice
is appointed every two years, the nine most recently appointed
justices are a panel that hears appellate cases, and the entire court
hears the few original jurisdiction cases. The judges are still
appointed for life, but they don't get to do quite as much judging
as they do now.
Stan Brown <[email protected]> wrote:[quoting Wikipedia]
"Decided in 1803, Marbury is regarded as the single most important
decision in American constitutional law. It established that the U.S. Constitution is actual law, not just a statement of political
principles and ideals."
The current members of the Court apparently disagree with that
proposition. While the Constitution says that insurrectionists can't
serve in Congress, the Court said that provision is not self executing,
and legislation is required to impliment it. That decision is clearly ridiculous and emblematic of a Court that doesn't care for what the law actually is, but what they would like it to be.
On Tue, 30 Jul 2024 17:02:16 -0700 (PDT), Jethro_uk wrote:
I dunno - the US managed to ban and unban alcohol pretty quickly.
True, but there was general consensus about enacting prohibition. As
for repealing prohibition, I _suspect_ there was not general
consensus, and that's why the 21st amendment lets states keep
prohibition if they want to. ...
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