"Jethro_uk" wrote in message news:uclkmr$g7da$
[email protected]...
Am I right is understanding that the wording in question doesn't require
a conviction in a court. And that being the case was the express
intention of the framers who would have stated otherwise had they meant
so ?
(If I were to do a "today I learned" it would be that each US state can >decide who goes on the presidential ballot independently)
Yes, the wording does not require a conviction.
It wasn't the framers per se that wrote the amendment - it was actually
written and passed after the end of the US Civil war during Reconstruction.
My understanding is that the reason no conviction was required was that the amendment was intended to keep people who had served in the Confederacy (who might not ever have ben convicted of any crime) from holding office.
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